Category Archives: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE question papers

General Awareness: International Atomic Energy Agency Quiz

1. In what assemblage was the Multinational Microscopical Drive Agency (IAEA) founded?

a) 1957
b) 1965
c) 1945
d) 1991

The punish resolution is a) 1957

2. Which of the succeeding was NOT an creative role of the IAEA?

a) Safeguards and Substantiation
b) Study and Technology
c) Non-Proliferation Pact obligingness monitoring
d) Safety and Section

The proper solvent is c) Non-Proliferation Accord compliance monitoring

3. Where are the headquarters of the IAEA located?

a) Educator, D.C.
b) Port, Egypt
c) Metropolis, Svizzera
d) Vienna, Oesterreich

The punish solve is d) Vienna, Austria

4. Which two bodies of the Collective Nations does the IAEA interrogation to?

a) Council and Transnational Cortege of Disposal
b) Guarantee Council and Generalised Assemblage
c) UNICEF and Territory Council
d) Secretariate and Humanity Health System

The right tell is b) Instrument Council and Miscellaneous Installation

5. The IAEA and its Manager Head won the Chemist Serenity Reckon in 2005. Who was the Filmmaker Solon?

a) Hans Blix
b) Mohamed el-Baradei
c) W. Superlative Cole
d) Sigvard Eklund

The exact say is b) Mohamed el-Baradei

6. Two states person withdrawn from the IAEA (one in 1994 and one in 2003.) Which two are they?

a) Iran and Iraq
b) Sion and France
c) Northwestern Peninsula and Kampuchea
d) Bharat and Pakistan

The exact response is c) Northwest Choson and Combodia

7. The IAEA originated in larger component from the “Atoms for Pact” module presented by U.S. Presidentship Dwight Ike to the Amalgamated Nations Generalized Installation. When was this style relinquished?

a) 1962
b) 1953
c) 1947
d) 1968

The accurate answer is b) 1953

8. Who was the forward Musician Solon of the IAEA?

a) Kurt Solon
) W. Superlative Cole
c) Helmuth Kohl
d) Director Mondale

The rectify respond is b) W. Sterling Cole

9. The IAEA is prefabricated up of triad important bodies. What are they?

a) Thoroughbred, Assets Council, and Generic Assemblage
b) Secretariate, Indissoluble Council, Rotating Council
c) Thoroughbred, Scheme Council, and Warrant Council
d) Secretariat, Solon Association, and Surface of Governors

The exact resolution is d) Secretariate, Generalised Association, and Inhabit of Governors

10. If the IAEA finds a dry to be in earnest breach of the Non-Proliferation Pact, what is the strongest conventional mechanism it can assert?

a) refer the country to the U.N. Warrant Council
b) sieze all of the country’s fissile substance
c) impose sanctions on the state
d) close the sinning land

The reverse result is a) refer the state to the U.N. Surety Council

Chronology of Indian Missile Technology

Chronology of India‘s Missile Milestone comparing with other countries
1947: Dr. Vikram Sarabhai establishes the Physical Research Laboratory (PRL), which will later become a national center for space research, supported primarily by India‘s Department of Space.

1962: The Defence Research and Development Laboratory (DRDL), established one year earlier as an extension of the Special Weapon Development Team (SWDT), is moved to Hyderabad to work on missile design and development.

1962: The Indian Committee for Space Research (INCOSPAR) is established under the auspices of the Department of Atomic Energy.

1963: INCOSPAR establishes the Thumba Equatorial Rocket Launching Station (TERLS).

November 1963: A U.S.-produced, solid-propellant Nike-Apache rocket is launched from Thumba Equatorial Rocket Launching Station. The launch is part of an international effort under the United Nations. It is later followed by 350 U.S. French, Soviet and British rockets launched between 1963 and 1975.

1964: The Centre National d’ Etudes Spatiales (CNES) and India’s Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) conclude a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) for CNES to supply four Centaure rockets with payloads for vapor cloud experiments. For its part, DAE will manufacture in India, under license, the Belier and Centaure types of sounding rockets.

1965: India establishes the Space and Technology Center (SSTC) in Thumba.

1967: The Satellite Telecommunication Earth Center is established in Ahmedabad.

1967: India launches its first sounding rocket, Rohini-75.

1969: The Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) is formed under the Department of Atomic Energy.

1970: India and the Soviet Union sign a MoU on Collaboration in the Organization of Rocket Sounding of the Atmosphere by Soviet Meteorological Rockets at Thumba Equatorial Rocket Launching Station.

1972-1982: DRDL establishes missile-related infrastructure, including aerodynamic, structural and environmental test facilities, liquid and solid propulsion facilities, fabrication engineering facilities, control, guidance, FRP, and computer facilities.June 1972: The Space Commission and Department of Space is established and ISRO is brought under the Department of Space.

1975: India launches its first satellite, Aryabhata.

1977: India and France sign a Cooperation Agreement in the Field of Space Affairs.

1978: India and the United States conclude a MoU and an Exchange of Notes Constituting an Agreement Relating to Launching and Associated Services for Indian Satellites.

1979: Bharat Dynamics Ltd. becomes India’s guided missile headquarters.

March 1979: A Centaure-2 type rocket is launched from Thumba, as part of an agreement and program begun in 1974. The rocket carries Bulgarian and Indian equipment for exploration and measurement of in space of proton and electron fluxes.

1980: India conducts the second experimental launch of its SLV-3 after its failed initial launch in 1979, and succeeds in placing the Rohini satellite into orbit.

1982: The Vikram Sarabhai Space Center (VSSC) successfully launches a Centaure rocket under the joint cooperation of India, West Germany, and Austria.

1983: India’s Integrated Guided Missile Development Program (IGMDP) begins, with more than 60 public and private organizations involved.

April 1984: India and the Soviet Union conduct a joint manned space mission.

September-October 1984: A senior Indian delegation led by the Deputy Minister for Electronics, Dr. Sanjeevi Rao, visits the Soviet Union to purchase high-powered computers for India’s defense and nuclear industry. The Soviet Union agrees to supply its latest-generation “Elbrus” computer system to India after 1986.

1986: India’s Scientific Advisor to the Defense Minister Dr. V.S. Arunachalam announces that scientists at DRDL have successfully developed and tested a high-thrust, liquid-fueled rocket engine that generates a thrust of 30 tons and is capable of lifting a payload to a height of 600 km into space.

1987: After debate since 1985, an interagency group of U.S. officials from the Departments of Defense, State, and Commerce issue a communiqué that India is permitted to purchase from the United States “the Cyber 205, a Cray of approximately the same vintage, a single-processor Cray X-MP or some ‘other machine of equivalent capability.’”

February 1988: India conducts the first test flight of its surface-to-surface Prithvi ballistic missile, under a program headed by the DRDL.
March 1988: India launches its first operational remote sensing satellite, IRS-1A.

April 1988: ISRO signs a cooperation agreement with the European Space Agency.

1989: India conducts a test launch of its first medium-range ballistic missile, called the Agni. Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi states “The Agni is an R&D vehicle, not a weapons system. However, the technologies proved in Agni are deeply significant for evolving national security options.”

1991: ISRO and Russia’s Glavkosmos reach an agreement for the supply of engines and cryogenic technologies to India. Under U.S. pressure and sanctions imposed on ISRO in 1992, the agreement will be limited to the sale of seven KhimMach KVD-1 engines, each of which produces 7.5 metric tons of thrust.

1992: India acquires the ability to manufacture liquid hydrogen.
May 1992: India conducts a successful test of the third-stage motor for its PSLV, ignited under simulated high-altitude conditions.

May 1992: India stages its first successful launch of the four-stage ASLV, carrying its SROSS-C satellite into orbit, following two failed attempts in 1987 and 1988.

1993: ISRO signs a cooperation agreement with the European Space Agency.

1994: The periodical Flight International reports that India’s Aeronautical Development Establishment (ADE) has for the past two years been engaged in designing a ramjet-powered, submarine-launched missile dubbed the Sagarika.

1995-1996: India suspends development of the Agni missile project.
January 1996: India conducts the first test flight of the Prithvi-II surface-to-surface ballistic missile with a range of 250 kilometers, far enough to reach Islamabad.

March 1996: India successfully conducts its third and final developmental launch of the four-stage PSLV, deploying a 1-ton Indian satellite into 500-mile polar orbit.

May 1997: India completes development of two variants of the Prithvi ballistic missile. A 150-kilometer range version with a heavier warhead is ready for introduction into the Army, while the 250-kilometer version with a lighter warhead destined for the air force is ready for user trials.

June 1997: A fewer than a dozen Prithvi missiles are moved close to the Pakistani border. Prime Minister I. K. Gural denies the deployment, but Western officials affirm in November that the missiles were moved from storage to sites near thePakistan border.

August 1997: The Agni missile program is revived in response to Pakistan’s test of the Hatf-III missile in July.

September 1997: India conducts the first operational launch of its PSLV-C1, deploying a 1200-kilogram Indian Remote Sensing Satellite (IRS-1D) into orbit. In reaching 817 km circular polar sun-synchronous orbit, the PSLV was powered by four stages of alternating solid and liquid propellant.

1998: India conducts five underground nuclear tests at Pokhran, ranging in yield from less than 1 kiloton to about 45 kilotons. Defense Minister George Fernandes reportedly says that India will “inevitably” arm itself with nuclear warheads. TheUnited States proceeds to implement sanctions, in place by November 1998, on a large number of research, development, and production entities relating to space and missile technology.

February 1999: Indian Prime Minister A. B. Vajpayee and Pakistani Prime Minister Nawaz Sharif meet in Lahore, Pakistan. They agree to exchange strategic information about their nuclear arsenals, to give each other advance notice of ballistic missile tests, and to increase efforts to resolve the Kashmir issue.

April 1999: India conducts its first test of the nuclear-capable Agni-II missile. The two-stage solid fuel missile, which can carry a 1,000 kg payload, was successfully fired to a range of 2,000 kilometers.

May 1999: India launches a PSLV and successfully deploys an Indian remote sensing satellite and two other payloads.

July 1999: India successfully tests the Nishant, an unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV) designed to conduct aerial reconnaissance of battlefields.

October 1999: Scientists from the DRDO announce they are developing the Surya, an intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM) with a range exceeding 5,000 kilometers.

April 2000: India tests the medium-range Dhanush missile, a naval version of the Prithvi.

August 2000: India’s Agni-II missile reportedly reaches the operational stage.India’s Defense Minister, George Fernandes, states that re-entry, guidance, and maneuverability have been tested.

February 2001: Dr. Vasudev Aatre, head of India’s DRDO and scientific adviser to the Indian Minister of Defense, announces that India is developing the Agni-III ballistic missile. The Agni-III is anticipated to have a range of 3,500 km, improving upon the “range and capability” of the 2,100 km-range Agni-II.

March 2001: India’s Defense Minister, George Fernandes, announces that the Agni-II ballistic missile is operational and is ready for mass production after its second successful test launch in January. The 2,500 km range missile may be launched from a static launch pad or mobile launcher and offers India a nuclear second-strike capability.

March 2001: The periodical Defense News reports that India and Russia’s Central Scientific and Research Institute of Automatics and Hydraulics (TsNIIAG) are negotiating the sale of a variant of an electro-optical guided missile warhead originally developed for Scud-B ballistic missiles, which could drastically improve the accuracy of India’s ballistic missiles.

March 2001: India aborts the first attempt to launch its GSLV, when computers detect that one of its four liquid-fueled strap-on booster engines is not generating the required 90 percent thrust.

April 2001: After tracing the March 2001 malfunction to a defective oxidizer line,India’s GSLV successfully launches, setting the 3,000 lb experimental GSAT-1 communication satellite into orbit.

June 2001: According to the periodical Defense News, India successfully launches the PJ-10, also known as the BrahMos cruise missile, developed by DRDO andRussia’s NPO Mashinostryenia (NPOM) under a secret 1998 Indo-Russian accord. The missile has a range of 280 kilometers and may be fired from Indian and Russian mobile launchers, ships, submarines and aircraft.

July 2001: India and France reportedly sign a MoU to co-develop and co-produce battlefield surveillance radars and ballistic missiles, and for India to domestically build Scorpene submarines.

August 2001: According to Jane’s Defence Weekly, the Indian Army is to create a second missile regiment, the Strategic Rocket Regiment, to induct the Agni-II intermediate-range ballistic missile.

September 2001: U.S. President George Bush lifts sanctions against India andPakistan imposed under the Arms Export Control Act.

December 2001: An unclassified summary of the U.S. National Intelligence Council’s (NIC) National Intelligence Estimate claims most components required for an ICBM are found in India’s indigenous space program. India could “convert its polar space launch vehicle into an ICBM within a year or two of a decision to do so.” However, the report cautions that while India is striving for self-sufficiency, it still relies “heavily” on foreign assistance. The NIC also states that India will probably not deploy its Sagarika submarine-launched ballistic missile until 2010 or later.

December 2001: India successfully test-fires a 250 km extended-range version of the Prithvi missile, developed for the Indian Air Force. The indigenously developed surface-to-surface missile is one of the five missiles being developed under the IGMDP. The earlier version of the Prithvi is already in service with India’s Army.

March 2002: India’s Ministry of Defense announces that the Agni-II ballistic missile has entered into production phase and will soon be inducted into the Army.

March 2002: Scientists at India’s LPSC successfully fire an upper-stage cryogenic engine for 12 minutes, the duration it will fire during actual flight. On the same day, ISRO successfully tests an improved variant of the two-meter diameter solid-propellant motor that powers the third stage of the PSLV. Improvements include “optimization of the motor case and nozzle and increased propellant loading.” ISRO plans to use the motor in its PSLV launch later in 2002, which would be the first time that a PLSV will be used to place a payload in geostationary orbit.

April 2002: Jane’s Defence Weekly reports that, according to U.S. intelligence sources and contrary to the claims of Indian officials, the first test of a single-stage variant of the Agni was a failure. The missile flew its anticipated range of 700 km, but the warhead failed to separate.

June 2002: The U.S. Central Intelligence Agency (CIA) in its Unclassified Report to Congress on the Acquisition of Technology Relating to Weapons of Mass Destruction and Advanced Conventional Munitions states that India “still lacks engineering or production expertise in some key missile technologies.” The report adds that during 2001 Russia and Western Europe remained the main sources of missile-related and dual-use technology to fill these gaps.

July 2002: According to Jane’s Defense Weekly, Indian defense officials claim thatIndia has acquired two Green Pine radar systems from Israel, but say they have had little success in developing a missile defense capability against a possible Pakistani attack.

December 2002: The CIA in its Unclassified Report to Congress on the Acquisition of Technology Relating to Weapons of Mass Destruction and Advanced Conventional Munitions states that India was among the countries supplying assistance to Libya’s ballistic missile program.

January 2003: India has allocated $1 billion to the DRDO for the development of hypersonic missile systems, powered by an indigenously developed cryogenic engine fueled by liquid hydrogen and liquid oxygen.

January 2003: The Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) approves the creation of a Strategic Forces Command (SFC) to manage and administer all nuclear and strategic forces. The Nuclear Command Authority (NCA), comprising of a Political Council and an Executive Council, will be responsible for India’s nuclear arsenal.

January 2003: India reportedly places under its SFC two operational missile groups of the Indian Army, which possess the 150-250 km-range Prithvi and the 2,500 km-range Agni nuclear-capable ballistic missiles.

February 2003: According to a DRDO official, India has begun a 10-year development program of a two-stage space vehicle called Avatar that can take-off and land like an aircraft and place a 1,000 kg payload into a low-earth orbit. The vehicle would be capable of performing about 100 re-entries into the atmosphere. According to the DRDO official, the primary function of the vehicle is to act as a “reusable missile launcher, one which can launch missiles, land … and be loaded again for more missions.”

February 2003: An unnamed official from India’s Ministry of Foreign Affairs states that India has agreed to invest approximately $150 million in Israel’s Arrow-2 anti-missile system. The proposed investment must still be approved by the United States. Aerospace Daily claims that Israel has emerged as the second-largest supplier of weapons and equipment to India.

March 2003: The Times of India reports that British Prime Minister Tony Blair’s dossier on Iraq alleged that India’s NEC Engineers Private Limited had “extensive links in Iraq,” including to Iraq’s Al-Mamoun missile production plant, and had illicitly supplied ammonium perchlorate to Iraq.

April 2003: According to Indian Defense Minister, George Fernandes, India is developing and making efforts to test the Agni-III, a long-range surface-to-surface missile capable of carrying a nuclear warhead more than 2,000 kilometers.

May 2003: India conducts the second launch of its GSLV, lifting a 1,800 kg experimental communications satellite. Unlike the first flight, when the GSLV’s Russian-made cryogenic upper stage burned out four seconds too soon, this launch occurred without incident. ISRO announces that once declared operational, the GSLV will “make the Indian space program a self reliant one.”

May 2003: The Indian periodical Vayu announces that with the lifting of “restrictions imposed by collaborators,” India’s Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL) has been cleared for missile exports. BDL manufactures a variety of missiles including the Prithvi-I and Prithvi-II surface-to-surface missiles.

July 2003: The Washington Post reports that a coalition of pro-India and pro-Israel lobbyists, including the U.S.-India Political Action Committee (USINPAC), America Israel Political Action Committee (AIPAC), and American Jewish Committee (AJC), have joined forces to gain U.S. approval for the sale of Israel’s Arrow ballistic missile defense system to India.

August 2003: R. N. Agarwal, the former Director of the Agni missile project and currently the Director of the Advanced Systems Laboratory (ASL), states that the carbon composite content of the new Agni variants will be increased from 35 to 80 percent making them lighter and able travel longer distances. Agarwal says that the Agni’s re-entry heat shield is entirely made up of carbon composite.

October 2003: India clears the short-range Agni-I and medium-range Agni-II surface-to-surface missiles for the Army.

October 2003: Defense News, citing defense officials in Washington and New Delhi, reports that in August India “formally asked” the United States for multiple Patriot Advanced Capability-3 (PAC-3) anti-missile systems. India’s Prime Minister Atal Behari Vajpayee in September also requested inclusion in the U.S.-led global missile defense shield.

December 2003: Indian Defense sources indicate that the BrahMos cruise missile has been configured for launch from submarines. Submarine-to-surface launch is one of the four BrahMos designs, which are anticipated to include air-to-surface, ship-to-surface, and surface-to-surface. The missile was launched successfully from a surface ship and travelled 290 km to its target.

January 2004: India and the United States agree under the Next Steps in Strategic Partnership with India (NSSP) to expand cooperation in civilian nuclear programs, civilian space programs, and high-technology trade, including expanded dialogue on missile defense. This agreement initiates three major steps: removal of ISRO from the Department of Commerce Entity List, removal of export license requirements for items subject to Export Administration Regulations EAR99, and establishment of a presumption of approval for all items not controlled for nuclear proliferation reasons.

February 2004: ISRO chairman, G. Madhavan Nair unveils plans for the Ammonium Perchlorate Experimental Plant to expand ammonium perchlorate (AP) production from 300 metric tons to 800 metric tons by 2005.

March 2004: At the Sixth Joint Technical Group between India and the United States, Indian defense scientists approach the United States about possible cooperation in developing optronics, electro-optics, encryption, and sensor and jamming technologies.

March 2004: India successfully test-fires an “improved” version of its Prithvi-II surface-to-surface ballistic missile with an extended-range of 250 km and “much higher accuracy,” according to a defense ministry official.

September 2004: India conducts the first operational flight of its GSLV, lifting a 1,950 kg spacecraft.
October 2004: India conducts a launch of its single-stage, Prithvi-III missile.

November 2004: India successfully test-fires the 350 km-range Dhanush missile, marking the induction of the system into the Navy. Dhanush is the naval version of the Prithvi-II.

December 2004: The Russian Federal Space Agency says that it will
continue cooperation with India in the development of an oxygen-hydrogen booster for space rockets.

December 2004: India and Russia sign 10 agreements on space, defense, and aviation, including an agreement to jointly cooperate on satellite manufacture and launch under the Russian Global Navigation Satellite System (GLONASS). Russia’s Federal Space Agency head, Anatoly Perminov, states that India’s military use of the GLONASS system, which could help improve the accuracy of Indian missiles, has not been ruled out.

February 2005: President A.P.J. Abdul Kalam states before Parliament that the BrahMos missile “has been successfully tested … and is ready for induction” intoIndia’s military.

May 2005: ISRO’s four-stage solid and liquid propellant PSLV-C6 successfully propelled two satellites into polar sun synchronous orbit. The Spacecraft Control Centre of ISTRAC at Bangalore will continuously monitor the CARTOSAT-1, which is a cartographic satellite mounted with two cameras with 2.5 meter spatial resolution and 30 km coverage, and the HAMSAT, which is a micro-satellite intended for radio transmission.

May 2005: India’s Rajya Sabha, the upper house of Parliament, passes the Weapons of Mass Destruction and Their Delivery Systems (Prohibition of Unlawful Activities) Bill, which bans proliferation of mass destruction weapon and missile technology. Once signed by India’s President Abdul Kalam, the bill will become law and will apply to Indians in India and abroad, as well as foreigners residing inIndia.

May 2005: India has reportedly added the short-range Agni-I and intermediate-range Agni-II to its Strategic Forces Command arsenal.
May 2005: Agni program director, Dr. R. N. Agarwal says that the Agni-III, India’s long-range ballistic missile designed to be capable of hitting targets 3,000 to 3,500 km away, will be ready for flight testing by the end of 2005.

June 2005: As part of the “New Framework for the U.S.-India Defense Relationship,” signed by U.S. Defense Secretary Donald Rumsfeld and Indian Defense Minister Pranab Mukherjee, the United States has offered India a briefing on the Patriot PAC-3 missile system, as well as increased opportunities for technology transfer, collaboration, co-production, and research and development with the understanding that U.S. technology-related sanctions on India will be lifted.
June 2005: India’s VSSC has begun work on its first hypersonic wind tunnel (HWT).

July 2005: A joint venture between Russia’s Mashinostroenie Scientific Industrial Association and India’s DRDO has begun mass production of the BrahMos cruise missile. The Indian Navy has placed the first order for the missile, which is also anticipated to be fielded by the Russian Navy. The baseline version is an anti-ship missile, which also may be fired from air platforms.

July 2005: The United States and India release a joint statement during a visit byIndia’s Prime Minister Manmohan Singh to the White House. Initiatives to be implemented include signature of a Science and Technology Framework Agreement, establishment of closer ties in space exploration, satellite navigation and launch, and cooperation in the commercial space arena through such groups as the U.S.-India Working Group on Civil Space Cooperation.

August 2005: India’s Defense Secretary Yogendera Narain states that India has acquired a Green Pine radar from Israel for “advanced research,” after three to four years of discussions.

August 2005: The U.S. Department of Commerce removes from the Entity List ISRO subordinates: ISRO Telemetry, Tracking and Command Network (ISTRAC), ISRO Intertial Systems Unit (IISU), and Space Applications Center.

October 2005: India and Pakistan’s Foreign Secretaries sign a
formalized agreement on notification at least 72 hours ahead of ballistic missile tests. Contained within the agreement is a bilateral pledge not to set up any missile test launch site within 40 km of the Line of Control or the international border.

Indian History (Prelims)/ quiz

1. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer

List I List II
A. Chaitanya 1. Kerala
B. Shankara 2. Bengal
C. Jnanadeva 3. Tamil Nadu
D. Thyagaraja 4. Maharashtra
5. Orissa
(a) 4 1 2 3 (b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 2 1 4 3 
2. Who among the following is said to be the founder of the Pasupata Cult ?
(a) Basava 
(b) Lakulisa 
(c) Kusika 
(d) Gorakhnatha
3. The doctrine of transmigration does not find mention to the
(a) Aranyakas 
(b) Jataka Literature
(c) Upanishads 
(d) Vedas
4. Most of the Asokan inscriptions are in Prakrit language because it was
(a) the language of the State
(b) understood by a majority of the people
(c) used by the Tathagata Buddha
(d) the only language known at that time
5. Which one of the following is not known from Asokan inscriptions ?
(a) He appointed followers of Buddhist religion to high government posts
(b) He warned the monks and nuns that they would be punished if they created schism in Buddhism
(c) He categorically expressed his faith in the Buddha, Dharma and Sangha
(d) He made pilgrimages to holy Buddhist places

 6. In which of the following is the name `Asoka’ found?
1. Nittur edict of Asoka
2. The Allahabad Pillar Inscription of Samudragupta
3. Junagarh inscription of Rudradaman
4. Hathigumpha inscription of Kharavela
Select the correct answer from the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2 (b) l and 3 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
7. The inscription of Asoka are found in
(a) Kharoshthi and Brahmi
(b) Kharoshthi, Brahmi and Greek
(c) Kharoshthi, Brahmi and Aramaic
(d) Kharoshthi, Brahmi, Greek and Aramaic

8. Megasthenes states :” There was no slavery in India.” This statement must have been made because
(a) there was absence of slavery in India
(b) slavery was not prevalent in India in the extreme form as he had seen in Greece
(c) the moved only with the king and elites in the capital
(d) the wrote this on hearsay

9. The most important source of information for the municipal administrative system of the city of Pataliputra in the Mauryan empire is
(a) Indika
(b) Mudrarakshasa
(c) Asokan inscriptions
(d) Arthasastra

10. Which one of the following refers to the Mauryas as Kshatriyas ?
(a) The Mudrarakshasa
(b) The Greek Writers
(c) The Arthasastra
(d) The Divyavadana

11. Which one of the following is the most reliable and accurate evidence for fixing the date of Asoka?
(a) Ceylonese chronicles mentioning his contemporaneity with Devanampiya Tissa
(b) Asoka’s inscriptions referring to foreign kings
(c) The Puranic literature referring to the genealogy and chronology of the Mauryan rulers
(d) Pali canonical literature referring to the holding of Buddhist Councils
12. Which of the following kings have left inscriptions mentioning the Sudarsana lake ?
1. Asoka
2. Rudradaman
3. Samudragupta
4. Skandagupta
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
13. The earliest images of the Buddha were made almost simultaneously at
(a) Gandhara and Ajanta
(b) Mathura and Amaravati
(c) Mathura and Gandhara
(d) Ajanta and Amaravati
14. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(a) Pliny Natural History
(b) Ptolemy Geography
(c) Strabo Periplus of Erythraean Sea
(d) Cosmos Christian Topography

15. With which of the following regions did India have the closest contact during the Gupta period?
(a) South -East Asia (b) Central Asia
(c) Iran (d) Western Asia
16. Which one of the following most suitably defines the term `sreni’ ?
(a) An organisation of people of one caste following the same vocation
(b) An organization of people of one caste following different vocations
(c) An organization of people of one or more castes following one vocation
(d) An organization of people of different castes following different vocations

17. There was brisk commercial contact between Rome and Tamil Nadu during the Sangam period. Many articles were exported from Tamil Nadu to Rome. Which one among the following items was not included in the export ?
(a) Spices (b) Beryl (c) Ivory (d) Wine
18. Which of the following made a new contribution to India’s maritime trade in the early centuries of the Christian era?
(a) Manufacture of better type of vessels
(b) Knowledge of the depth of sea at various points
(c) Better training in navigation
(d) Knowledge of monsoon winds
19. Which of the following was not characteristic of the period that followed the Gupta rule ?
(a) Decrease in trade
(b) Increase in the use of coins
(c) Increase in the use of local weights and measures
(d) Multiplication of feudatories
20. The rise of the Brahmana aristocracy in the post-Gupta period was facilitated by
(a) donation of land to priestly class
(b) growth of ritualistic practices
(c) advent of foreigners
(d) decline of Buddhism
21. A new sort of social structure called the Jajmani system became prevalent in India during the
(a) later Vedic age
(b) the Mauryan empire
(c) the Gupta age
(d) the post-Gupta period

22. Which one of the following is not related to the feudal formation in the Gupta and post-Gupta times ?
(a) Emergence of landed intermediaries
(b) Growth of a class of subject peasantry
(c) Localized village economy developed with little scope for functioning of the market system
(d) Emergence of strong centralized political authority
23. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A) : Many Roman gold and silver coins, belonging to first and second centuries A.D., have been discovered in South India.
Reason (R) : Some parts of South India were under Roman occupation during this period.
In the context of above two .statements, which one of the following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
24. The unusually excessive proliferation of castes in the early medieval period was mostly due to
(a) increasing varnasamkara
(b) increasing greater absorption of tribes as castes
(c) occupational groups turning into castes
(d) religious sects being converted into castes
25. The hierarchy of the four varnas described in many of the early Buddhist texts is
(a) vessa, sudda, khattiya, bahamanna
(b) sudda, vessa, bahamanna, khattiya
(c) khattiya, bahamanna, vessa, sudda
(d) vessa, bahamanna, khattiya, sudda
26. Which one of the following Chola rulers is reported to have destroyedAnuradhapura, once the capital of Ceylon ?
(a) Rajaraja I
(b) Rajendra I
(c) Rajadhiraja I
(d) Kulottunga I
27. Alberuni states that the antyajas , who were not reckoned amongst any of the four varnas, were composed of eight groups or guilds of craftsmen or professionals. Which one of the following did not belong to any of the eight guilds ?
(a) Shoemaker (b) Weaver (c) Fisherman (d) Blacksmith
28. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A) : The Cholas were the inheritors and continuers of the Pallava traditions in Temple construction.
Reason (R) : They built numerous monolithic temples throughout their kingdom following the Pallava styles. In the context of above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
29. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : According to the Mitakshara school, father could divide his sons during his lifetime.
Reason (R) : The Mitakshara recognised son’s right of ownership by birth in ancestral property.
In the context of above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
30. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List I List II
(Archaeological sites) (Characteristic Features)
A. Brahmagiri 1. Mesolithas
B. Kupgal 2. Pit dwellings
C. Burzahorn 3. Urn Burials
D. Adichchanallur 4. Megaliths
5. Ash mounds
(a) 5 2 1 4 (b) 1 5 2 4
(c) 1 2 5 3 (d) 4 5 2 3

Indian History – 1997 (Prelims)

31. Among other nations, it is usual in the contest of war to ravage the soil; among the Indians, the tillers of soil, even when battle is raging in their neighborhood, are undisturbed by any sense of danger and remain unmolested.’ This statement was made by
(a) Huientsang
(b) Herodotus
(c) Megasthenes
(d) Fa-hien
32. After the disappearance of the Chalukyas at the end of the twelfth century and the Cholas at the beginning of the thirteenth, the four kingdoms that dominated the political history of southern India were the
(a) Pandya, Hoysala, Kakatiya and the Yadava
(b) Rashtrakuta, Kadamba, Eastern Ganga and the Bana
(c) Western Ganga, Pandya, Vishnukundin and Hoysala
(d) Chera, Mahameghavahana, Salankayana and the Vijayanagara

33. III
34. Match List I with The Chalukyan capital was shifted from Manyakheta to Kalyani by
(a) Somesvara I Ahavamalla
(b) Vikramaditya VI
(c) Perma Jagadekamalla II
(d) Tailappa List II and select the correct answer:
List I List II
A. Merchants 1. Jithhaka
B. Craftsmen 2. Setthis
C. Federation of guilds 3. Satthavaha
D. Caravan Chief 4. Bhandagarika
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 1 2 4 3
35. Who was the noble serving Sultan Naseeruddin Mahmud who lost the top post due to the machinations of Balban ?
(a) Amir Yaqut
(b) Imaduddin Raihan
(c) Tughril Beg
(d) Zafar Khan
36. The troops directly under the royal service in the Delhi Sultanate were known as
(a) lashkar
(b) hashm qalb
(c) sipahi
(d) muqta’i
37. The system of Itlaq, a sort of draft enabling royal soldier to collect his salary from the state revenue officials, was introduced by
(a) Iltutmish
(b) Balban
(c) Alauddin Khalji
(d) Feroze Shah Tughlaq
38. Qismat-i khote in the Delhi Sultanate was
(a) a cash payment made by the state to the village headman
(b) a village assigned to a khot
(c) a small cess collected by the village headman from the peasants
(d) the revenue assessed on the land cultivated by the knots and muqaddams

39. `Every pearl in the Royal Crown is but the crystallized drop of blood fallen from the tearful eyes of the poor peasant.’ The above remark about the poverty of the Indian peasants during the Delhi Sultanate was made by
(a) Barani
(b) Ibn Battuta
(c) Minhajuddin Siraj
(d) Amir Khusrau
40. The sashgani coin was introduced during the reign of
(a) Allauddin Khalji
(b) Balban
(c) Feroz Shah Tughlaq
(d) Sikandar Lodi
41. The Vijaynagar rulers are remembered for promoting agriculture by
(a) building dams, tanks, wells etc.
(b) reducing tax on cultivated land
(c) providing market facilities for agricultural products
(d) purchasing food grains for the army
42. Which one of the following Vijaynagar rulers was the author of Amuktamalsrada ?
(a) Bukka I
(b) Harihara II
(c) Krishna Deva Raya
(d) Deva Raya II
43. Which one of the following kingdoms was not in the alliance that crushed the Vijayanagar Empire at the Battle of Talikota (1565) ?
(a) Berar
(b) Ahmadnagar
(c) Bijapur
(d) Golconda
44. The main trading port of the Vijayanagar Empire on the western coast was
(a) Bhatkal
(b) Calicut
(c) Cannanore
(d) Goa
45. To which one of the following Sufi silsilahs did Shaikh Bahau’ddin Zakaria belong ?
(a) Qadriya
(b) Naqshbandi
(c) Suhrawardi
(d) Chisti
46. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List I List II
A. Siyasatnama 1. Nizam-ul mulk Tusi
B. Khazain-ul-futuh 2. Hamid Qalandar
C. Khair-ul-Majalis 3. Amir Khusrau
D. Tarikh-i Mubarak Shahi 4. Yahya Sirhindi
(a) 1 3 2 4
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 1 4 3 2
(d) 4 1 2 3
47. The total number of Mughal Subas in 1605 was
(a) 12 (b) 15
(c) 17 (d) 19
48. Which one of the following Mughal officers was not associated with religious affairs ?
(a) Sadr (b) Mufti
(c) Muhtasib (d) Mustaufi
49. Who among the following defined a sovereign or sovereignty as farr-i izdi in contrast to the concept of zil alAllah ?
(a) Badauni
(b) Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi
(c) Abul Fazl
(d) Shaikh Abdul Haq Muhaddis
50. In the terminology of the Mughal revenue administration, the term zamin paymudah denoted
(a) barren land
(b) land left unmeasured for ghalla bakhshi
(c) Land cultivated every two years
(d) measured land
51. Which of the following regions was\were well-known during the seventeenth century for simultaneous production of saltpetre, indigo and opium ?
(a) Burhanpur and Sindh
(b) Gujarat
(c) Bengal and Orissa
(d) Bihar
52. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List I List II
(Event) (Date)
A. Battle of Haldighati 1. 1611
B. Marriage of Jahangir with Nurjahan 2. 1576
C. The capture of Qandahar by Safavids 3. 1680
D. Death of Shivaji 4. 1622
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 4 1 3 2
53. The rulers of which of the following was/were called tarafdar by the mughal monarchs ?
(a) Bijapur and Golconda
(b) Golconda
(c) Gujarat
(d) Ahmadnagar
54. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Mahabat Khan rebelled and made Jahangir and Nurjahan prisoners
Reason (R) : Mahabat Khan wanted to instal Prince Khurram on the Mughal throne.
In the context of above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
55. Which one of the following correctly defines the term Cartaz ?
(a) A Mughal royal farman Issued in French
(b) Permission paper from the Mughal governors of Surat to allow Europeon ships to anchor at Cambay
(c) A document permitting non-European traders for maritime activities in the Asian waters
(d) Letters exchanged between Europeon trading companies

56. Under the supervision of which one of the following Europeon trading companies the town of Qasimbazar produced the largest amount of silk yarn during the seventeenth century?
(a) Danes
(b) English
(c) Dutch
(d) French
57. Which one of the following ruling lines of the Marathas defeated Bajirao II, the last Peshwa ?
(a) Scindhia
(b) Holkar
(c) Bhonsle
(d) Gaikwar
58. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List I List II
A. Sumant 1. Religious affairs
B. Amatya 2. State correspondence
C. Sachiva 3. Revenue department
D. Panditrao 4. Foreign affairs
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 4 2 3 1
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 3 1 2 4
59. Who among the following was sent to Persia by Jahangir to draw portraits of Shah Abbas for Mughal album ?
(a) Mansur (b) Bichitr
(c) Bishandas (d) Basawan
60. In which part of a large Mughal monument would one usually find Spandrel ?
(a) Dome (b) Gateway
(c) Minaret (d) Rampart

Indian History – 1997 (Prelims)

61. The mausoleum of Rabia-ul Dauran was built at
(a) Lahore (b) Delhi
(c) Aurangabad (d) Gulbarga
62. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List I (Books) List II (Authors)
A. Iyar Danish 1. Abdul Hamid Lahori
B. Humayun Nama 2. Khwafi Khan
C. Badshahnama 3. Gulbadan Begum
D. Muntakhab-ul Lubab 4. Abul Fazal
(a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 1 4 3 2
63. Who among the following took interest for the first time in the Europeon movable metal type-printing ?
(a) Mir Fathullah Shirazi
(b) Jahangir
(c) Muqarrab Khan
(d) Bhimji Parekh

64. Which of the following pairs are correct matched
1. Rabeting Shipbuilding
2. Flintlock Gun-making
3. `Wootz’ Textile
4. Filatures Metallurgy
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
65. “This site was granted to French East India Company in 1674 by Shaista Khan, a governor under the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb. During the Seven Years’ War (1756-63) this town was captured (1757) by the John Company but later (1763) restored to the French. Recaptured by the English in 1778, after the outbreak of the American War of Independence (1776-84) it was restored to the French by the Treaty of Paris (1785). Wrested again by the British in 1793, on the outbreak of the revolutionary wars in Europe, it was finally restored to the French in 1815 and remained part of their overseas empire until its transfer to the Indian republic in 1951.” The reference here is to
(a) Pondicherry (b) Karaikkal
(c) Chandernagore (d) Mahe
66. The Treaty of Allahabad was concluded by
(a) Robert Clive, Mir Jafar and Raja Balwant Singh
(b) Robert Clive, Najm-ud-Daula and Shuja-ud-Daula
(c) Robert Clive, Siraj-ud-Daula and Mir Kasim
(d) Shah Alam, Mir Jafar and Shuja-ud-Daula
67. The first native state to introduce military training on the Europeon model was
(a) Golconda (b) Mysore
(c) Oudh (d) Kashmir

68. Mangalore, Parambakkam and Porto Novo were places where major battles took place during the
(a) First Anglo-Mysore war
(b) Second Anglo-Mysore war
(c) Third Anglo-Mysore war
(d) Fourth Anglo-Mysore war
69. The East India Company began to use the term `investments in India’ for
(a) their bullion imports to purchase Indian goods
(b) the loot from Buxar for purchasing Indian goods
(c) the profits made from duty free inland trade and the surplus from Diwani revenue
(d) the borrowed money from Indian money lenders for purchases in India
70. Madras was restored to the English by the French by
(a) the Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle (1749)
(b) the Treaty of Pondicherry (1754)
(c) the Treaty of Salbai (1782)
(d) the Treaty of Mangalore (1784)
71. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer :
List I List II
(Acts passed for the relief of agriculturists) ( Year in which passed)
A. Punjab Land Alienation Act 1.1879
B. Deccan Agricultural Relief Act 2. 1904
C. North West Provinces Land 3. 1916
Alienation Act
D. Central Provinces Land 4. 1900
Alienation Act
(a) 1 4 2 3 (b) 1 4 3 2
(c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 4 1 2 3
72. The remittance problems from India was initially tackled by the East India Company Government through the
(a) development of more exports of grains from India
(b) exports of more cotton and silk goods to Europe
(c) development of indigo and export of opium to China
(d) development of jute and promotion of its export to Europe

73. The High Courts at Calcutta, Bombay and Madras to replace the Sadar Courts of Diwani and Nizamat were established in the year
(a) 1793 (b) 1831 (c) 1833 (d) 1865
74. Which of the following statements about the Indian Councils Act of 1892 are correct ?
1. It raised the number of additional members to a maximum of 16 for the Supreme Council, 20 for the legislative Council of Bombay, Madras and Bengal and 15 for the North Western Provision and Oudh
2. It conceded the Congress demand of the principle of direct election to the Legislative Councils.
3. It conceded to the members of the Legislative Councils the right of discussing the Budget.
4. It allowed the members of Legislative Councils the right of asking questions matters of public interest.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
75. The report of the Arundel Committee (1906) dealt with
(a) proposed changes in the Age of Consent to Marriage bill
(b) political reforms
(c) higher education
(d) the need to reunite Bengal which had been partitioned in the previous year

76. Match List I with list II and select the correct answer :
List I List II
A. V.D.Savarkar 1. The Sepoy Mutiny and the Revolt of 1857
B. Ashok Mehta 2. The Indian war of Independence
C. S.N.Sen 3. 1857- The Great Rebellion
D. R.C.Majumdar 4. Eighteen Fifty Seven
(a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 1 3 4 2 (d) 1 4 3 2
77. The tribal Rebellion against the British known as Uyulan was organised by
(a) Korra Mallaya (b) Ranade
(c) Birsa Munda (d) Konda Dora
78. Consider the following four popular movements that took place against the British rule
1. Bhils Revolt
2. Rebellion of Dhananjaya Bhanja
3. Gujjar Revolt
4. Kolhapur Revolt
The correct chronological order of these movements is
(a) 1, 3, 4, 2 (b) 3, 1, 4, 2 (c) 3, 1, 2, 4 (d) 1, 3, 2, 4

79. The Congress Nationalist Party was formed to act as a powerful pressure group within the Congress by
(a) Motilal Nehru and Tej Bahadur Sapru
(b) Mrs. Annie Besant and C.P. Ramaswami Iyer
(c) Madan Mohan Malaviya and M.S.Aney
(d) Surendrahath Banerjee and C.R Das
80. Which of the following reasons intensified the labour movement inIndia in the first quarter of the 20th century ?
1. Influence of British Labour movement
2. Russian Revolution of 1917
3. Rise in cost of living
4. Legislative measures of the British against Indian labour
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 4 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3

81. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A) : There was an upsurge of peasants in Telengana in the erstwhile state of Hyderabad in 1942
Reason (R) : It was an extension of the Quit India Movement of 1942.
In the context of above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
82. Who among the following were associated with Trade Union Movement in India ?
1. B.P.Wadia 2. N.M.Joshi 3. Dhundhiraj Thengdi 4. Vithalbhai Patel
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 3, 4 and 5
83. What is the correct chronological sequence of the following ?
1. The founding of the Ghadr Party
2. The Chauri-Chaura incident
3. The execution of Khudiram Bose
4. Moplah Rebellion in Malabar
(a) 1, 3, 2, 4 (b) 2, 1, 4, 3
(c) 3, 4, 1, 2 (d) 3, 1, 4, 2

84. The Congress President who conducted negotiations with Cripps in 1942 and Wavell at the Simla Conference was
(a) Abul Kalam Azad (b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) J.B.Kripalani (d) C. Rajagopalachari
85. Which one of the following is correctly matched ?
(a) Nibandhamala : Vishnusastri Chippullankar
(b) Sudharak : Sisikar Kumar Ghosh
(c) Raft Goftar : Agarkar
(d) Sambad Prabhakar : Bal Gangadhar Tilak

86. Who among the following were the Indian Liberals who attended the first session of the Round Table Conference?
1. Tej Bahadur Sapru
2. V.S. Srinivasa Sastri
3. M.R. Jayakar
4. C.Y. Chintamani
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

87. Which one of the following adumbrated principles and constitutional provisions which were later incorporated in the Montagu -Chelmsford Reforms ?
(a) Nehru Report (b) Wavell Plan
(c) Lucknow Pact (d) Poona Pact

88. The leaders of the Home Rule Movement borrowed the term `Home Rule’ from a similar movement in
(a) Ireland (b) Scotland (c) United States of America (d) Canada

89. The Simon Commission of 1928 was boycotted by the Congress because it
(a) did not include a representative of the Congress
(b) included a member of the Muslim League
(c) definitely negated the claim of the Indian people to determine their own Constitution
(d) was appointed one year before it was due
90. Match List I with list II and select the correct answer:
List I List II
A Young India 1. Surya Sen
B. Hindustan Prajatantric Sangh 2. Chandra Shekhar Azad
C. Hindustan Socialist 3. Vinayak Damodar Savarkar
Repubic Association
D. Indian Republican Army 4. Sachindra Sanyal
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 1 3 2 4

Indian History – 1997 (Prelims)

91. The Communal Award (1932) announced by Ramsay Macdonald spoke of special constituencies with separate communal electorates to be constituted for women in all provinces except
(a) NWFP
(b) Bengal
(c) Punjab
(d) the Bombay Presidency
92. Which of the following were reasons for the, Congressmen all over the country offering individual satyagraha in 1942 ?
1. The Congress demand for a national government had been rejected.
2. The freedom of speech against the war effort was denied.
3. The British rulers were not prepared to admit that India was a belligerent not of her own free will.
4. Gandhi offered satyagraha himself to cause greater embarrassment to the government.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
93. Which one of the following statements regarding the Constituent Assembly is not correct ?
(a) The constitution of a Constituent Assembly was an integral part of the Cabinet Mission Plan
(b) The Objective Resolution’ adopted by the Constituent Assembly, was later incorporated into the Preamble of the Constitution both in its spirit and as far as possible, the language.
(c) The members of the Constituent Assembly were directly elected by the people
(d) The rulers of Indian States who acceded to the Union as provided in the Constitution accepted the premise that sovereignty resided in their people-.not in themselves

94. In 1946 there was a mutiny of Indian naval ratings in
(a) Calcutta
(b) Madras
(c) Visakhapatanam
(d) Bombay
95. Given below are two statements, one labeled ,as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A) : In 1946, the Council of the Muslim League accepted the Cabinet Mission Plan.
Reason (R) : The Muslim League joined the Interim Government formed in 1946.
In the context of above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A arid R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
96. Which of the following metal (s) was/were not used by the Harappans ?
(a) Copper
(b) Gold and Copper
(c) Iron and Tin
(d) Silver and Bronze
97. Which one of the following is the most important feature of Harappan cities ?
(a) Large size
(b) Huge buildings
(c) Planned layout
(d) Wide roads
98. Which one of the following statements is not confirmed by the evidence of archaeology ?
(a) People of Bahrain island acted as middlemen in the trade between Indus and Sumerian people in the third millennium B.C.
(b) Lothal played an important role in the sea-borne trade between the Indus culture and Western Asia
(c) The Harappans were supplanted. by the Aryans
(d) The Harappans knew the lost-wax technique of manufacturing metal images

99. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer
List I List II
A. Harappa 1. Cemetery R 37
B. Lothal 2. Dockyard
C. Kalibangan 3. Figure of dancing girl
D. Mohanjodaro 4. Ploughed field
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 1 2 4 3

100. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List I List II
(Name of the site) (Associated culture)
A. Rangpur 1. Palaeolithic
B. Soan 2. Neolithic
C. Adichchanallur 3. Chalcolithic
D. Burzahom 4. Mesolithic
5. Megalithic
(a) 1 4 5 2 (b) 3 1 5 2
(c) 3 1 5 4 (d) 2 3 4 5
101.Which one of the following statements about the Indus culture is the least possible ?
(a) The Indus culture originated from the Kalibangan I culture
(b) The Indus culture originated from the peasant cultures of Sind and Baluchistan
(c) The Indus culture is an expansion of Sothi culture
(d) The Indus culture sprang directly as an urban culture without passing through the stage of village culture anywhere

102.There was no regular tax from land in the early Vedic period, because
(a) the people were not settled permanently in one locality
(b) the expenditure of the government was low
(c) the king was not considered as the proprietor of the land
(d) the people were not accustomed to paying land tax

103. The four varnas are mentioned for the first time in the
(a) Prithvi Sukta (b) Purusa Sukta
(c) Taittiriya Samhita (d) Vajasaneyi Samhita

104. The chief form of property in the Rigveda was
(a) gold (b) cattle wealth
(c) house (d) land

105. The Aryan gods invoked in an inscription from Boghaz Kui are
(a) Indra, Vishnu, Varuna and Nasatyas
(b) Rudra, Mitras, Indra and Nasatyas
(c) Indra, Mitra, Varuna and Nasatyas
(d) Mitra, Vishnu, Varuna and lndra

106. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List I List II
A. Asvalayana 1. Samhita
B. Apastamba 2. Grihyasutra
C. Maitrayana 3. Nirukta
D. Yaska 4. Dharmasutra
(a) 1 4 2 3 (b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 2 3 1 4 (d) 2 4 1 3

107. Which of the following were Vedic assemblies ?
1. Sabha
2. Vidatha
3. Samiti
4. Parishad
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4

108. During the Sangam age the Mahabharata in Tamil was composed by
(a) Perundevanar
(b) Villiputhur Alvar
(c) Kamban
(d) Kuttan

109. Which of the following did the Buddha not believe in?
1. The authority of Vedas.
2. Superiority of the Brahmana.
3. The efficacy of sacrifices.
4. The theory of rebirth.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
110. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer :
List I (Event) List II (Place)
A. First Buddhist Council 1. Vaisali
B. Second Buddhist Council 2. Rajagriha
C. Third Buddhist Council 3. Pataliputra
D. Fourth Buddhist Council 4. Kashmir
(a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 1 4 3 2 (d) 2 1 3 4
111. In Buddhist terminology, the word “Dharmachakrapravartana” indicates the
(a) belief in the cycle of life and death
(b) attainment of nirvana by Buddha
(c) first sermon by Buddha
(d) the personal religion of the Chakravarti
112. Which one of the following, according to the Buddha. would lead to nirvana ?
(a) To be constantly in the state of a stithaprajna
(b) Pursuit of the ashtangika marga
(c) Observance of asceticism and penance
(d) Adoration of Stupa
113. “Decay is inherent in all component beings. Work out your own salvation with diligence.” These words are attributed to
(a) Krishna (b) Mahavira (c) the Buddha (d) Sankaracharya
114. Which one of the following was introduced by Mahavira ?
(a) Ahimsa (b) Aparigraha (c) Brahmacharya (d) Satya
115. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer :
List I List II
(Name of the Jinas) (Their cognizance)
A. Parsvanatha 1. Bull
B. Adinatha 2. Lion
C.Mahavira 3. Snake
D. Santinatha 4. Goat
5. Deer
(a) 3 2 4 1 (b) 3 1 2 5
(c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 5 2 4 1

116. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) There are Jaina temples at Khajuraho
(b) There are Jaina caves at Udaygiri in Orissa
(c) There was a Jaina stupa at Mathura
(d) There are Jaina Monasteries at Vaisali

117. The two Indian deities described by Megasthenes as Dionysus and Heracles are identified respectively with
(a) Surya and Kartikeya (b) Siva and Krishna (c) Indra and Yama (d) Agni and Varuna

118. Which one of the following is mentioned in the Besanagar Pillar inscription as Bhagavata ?
(a) Dion (b) Heliodoro (c) Antialkidas (d) Kasiputra Bhagabhadra
119. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer :
List I List II
A. Concept of Ardhanarisvara 1. Bhagavatism
B Worship of five deities 2. Smartas
C The theory of “May be” 3. Jainism
D Hero worship 4. Saivism
(a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 4 2 3 1 (d) 3 4 2 1

120. Which one of the following is the most important feature of Bhagavatism ?
(a) Stress on devotion to a personal God
(b) Stress on penance
(c) Stress on rituals
(d) Stress on knowledge

New General Awareness 2011 Questions

01. According to Economic Survey (2011-11), as fiscal deficit stands revised at4.8 per cent of gross domestic product (GDP) for the current financial year against the Budget estimates of _ percent ?
  • 01. 5
  • 02. 5.5
  • 03. 6
  • 04. 6.5
  • 05. None
02. Which is a time-bound business plan for action in rural infrastructure and action is proposed in the areas of irrigation,rural roads, rural housing, rural water supply, rural electrification and rural telecommunication connectivity ?
  • 01. JNNURM
  • 02. Bharat Nirman
  • 03. MGNREGS
  • 04. PMAGY
  • 05. None of these
03. Who are leading the “Giving Pledge” campaign that urges rich people to pledge at least of their wealth to charity ?
  • 01. Bill Gates and Warren Buffet
  • 02. Sergey Ms Brin and Lawrence E.Page
  • 03. Mark Zuckerberg and Jack Dorsey
  • 04. Lakshmi Mittal and Sunil Mittal
  • 05. Mukesh Ambani and Anil Ambani
04. Bilateral trade between India and China exceeded ?
  • 01. $ 40 billion
  • 02. $ 50 billion
  • 03. $ 60 billion
  • 04. $ 70 billion
  • 05. None of these
05. A Which among the above are proposed to be tire members of the proposed Financial Stability Development Council (FSDC) ?
  • 01. SEBI and RBI
  • 02. SEBI, RBI & PFRDA
  • 03. SEBI, RBI, PFRDA and IRDA
  • 04. SEBI, RBI and IRDA
06. The Election commission on ___ announced assembly poll schedules in 5 states : West Bengal, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Assam and Punducherry from April 4, 2011 to May 10, 2011 ?
  • 01. 4 March, 2011
  • 02. 3 March, 2011
  • 03. 2 March, 2011
  • 04. 1 March, 2011
  • 05. None
07. Who become the first century in the Xth world Cup Cricket (2011) ?
  • 01. Virat Kohli
  • 02. Sachin Tendulkar
  • 03. Andrew Strauss
  • 04. Virender Sehwag
  • 05. Yuvaraj Singh
08. According to data released by telecom regulatory authority of India in January 2011, telecom operators added a 22.88 million mobile subscribers in November 2010, taking the total number of telephone users in the country to ?
  • 01. 780 million
  • 02. 750 million
  • 03. 764 million
  • 04. 814 million
  • 05. 800 million
09. Which is a time-bound business plan for action in rural infrastructure and action is proposed in the areas of irrigation,rural roads, rural housing, rural water supply, rural electrification and rural telecommunication connectivity ?
  • 01. JNNURM
  • 02. Bharat Nirman
  • 03. MGNREGS
  • 04. PMAGY
  • 05. None of these
10. The corpus allocated for Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) for 2011-12 is ?
  • 01. Rs. 1,6000
  • 02. Rs.17000
  • 03. Rs. 18000
  • 04. Rs. 19000
  • 04. None of those

May General Awareness Quiz

01. The National Housing Bank (NI-IB) is wholly owned by ?
  • a) SBI
  • b) RBI
  • c) ICICI Bank
  • d) NABARD
  • e) None of these
02. The stance of RBI monetary policy is ?
  • a) inflation control with adequate liquidity for growth
  • b) improving credit quality of the Banks
  • c) strengthening credit delivery mechanism
  • d) supporting investment demand in the economy
  • e) Any of the above
03. The Reserve Bank of India had divested its stake in State Bank of India to ?
  • a) IDBI Bank
  • b) LIC
  • c) ICICI Bank
  • d) Government of India
  • e) None
04. The official mascot for the 2011 Cricket World Cup ?
  • a) Shera
  • b) Stumpy
  • c) Zakumi
  • d) Tiger
  • e) None of these
05. The number of teams participated in the 201 1 ICC Cricket World Cup ?
  • a) 10
  • b) 11
  • c)12
  • d) 13
  • e) 14
06. The official event ambassador for the ICC Cricket World Cup 2011 is ?
  • a) Sachin Tendulkar
  • b) Mahendra Singh Dhoni
  • c) Amitabh Bachchan
  • d) Aishwarya Rai
  • e) None of these
07. The official song of the 2011 World Cup “De Ghuma Ke” was composed by ?
  • a) Zakir Hussain
  • b) A.R.Rahman
  • c) Shankar-Ehsaan-Loy
  • d) Sivamani
  • e) None of these
08. The 2011 ICC Cricket World Cup opening ceremony was held in ?
  • a) Feroz Shah Kotla, New Delhi
  • b) M. A. Chidambaram Stadium, Chennai
  • c) Eden Gardens, Kolkata
  • d) Wankhede Stadium, Mumbai
  • e) Bangabandhu National Stadium, Dhaka.
09. Second most populous country in the world ?
  • a) China
  • b) India
  • c) USA
  • d) Indonesia
  • e) Brazil
10. Most populous state in India ?
  • a) Uttar Pradesh
  • b) Maharashtra
  • c) Bihar
  • d) West Bengal
  • e) Andhra Pradesh

General knowledge for Exams

1) The colour of star is an identification of ?
A) Weight
B) Temperature
C) Distance
D) Size                                                                       B) Temperature

2) Father of Nuclear Physics ?
A) Neils Bohr
B) John Dalton
C) Ernest Rutherford
D) Chadwick                                                             C) Ernest Rutherford       

3) ‘Tower of Silence’ is situated in

A) Delhi
B) Goa
C) Chennai
D) Mumbai                                                                D) Mumbai

4) The first Medical College in Kerala was set up in

A) Kottayam
B) Thiruvananthapuram
C) Palakkad
D) Thrissur                                                                B) Thiruvananthapuram

5) Medicine given through mouth is called

A) Ingestion
B) Inhalation
C) Injection
D) Induction                                                             A) Ingestion

6) Sodium is kept in __ liquid

A) Water
B) Alcohol
C) Ammonia
D) Kerosene                                                           D) Kerosene

7) Konark Sun Temple in India is situated at

A) Tamilnadu
B) Mumbai
C) Orissa
D) Karnataka                                                        C) Orissa

8) The maximum age that the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court can remain in office

A) 58
B) 60
C) 62
D) 65                                                                   D) 65 years

9) Leaves are Green due to the presence of

A) Chlorophyll
B) Melanin
C) Haemoglobin
D) None of these                                                  A) Chlorophyll

10) The biggest airport in the world is in

A) Australia
B) Abu Dhabi
C) Saudi Arabia
D) United States                                                  C) Saudi Arabia

11) Which part of the Coco tree is the source of natural chocolate flavour ?

A) Leaves
B) Stem
C) Root
D) Seeds                                                              D) Seeds

12) All India Trade Union Congress was formed in ?

A) 1917
B) 1920
C) 1930
D) 1927                                                               B) 1920

13) Male- Female sex ratio of India in 2001 census is ?

A) 1000:933
B) 1000:939
C) 1000:1040
D) 1000:1046                                                       A) 1000:933

14) Temporary hardness of water is due to ?

A) Calcium chloride
B) Sodium Carbonate
C) Sodium Chloride
D) Magnesium bicarbonate                                    D) Magnesium Bicarbonate

15) Mark is the currency of

A) Egypt
B) South Africa
C) Germany
D) Austria                                                            C) Germany

Sports General Knowledge Questions And Answers

Q- Where is National Golf Academy ?
Ans- Chandigarh
Q- Where and when the 19th FIFA cup is scheduled to held ?
Ans- June-July 2010, South Africa
Q- Volvo Masters of India” is related to which game?
Ans- Golf
Q-Shotgun World Cup is related to which game?
Ans- Shooting
Q-Asian Beach Games are related to which sports?
Ans- Athletics
Q- Who won the Maharastra Kesari title in January 2009?
Ans- Chandradhar Patil
Q- Jimmy George Foundation Award is given in the field of which sports?
Ans- Athletics
Q- RBS Cup is related to which sports?
Ans- Cricket
Q- Bama Belleck Cup is related to which sports?
Ans- Table Tennis
Q- Wellington Trophy is related to which sports?
Ans- Rowing
Q- Augusta Masters is related to which sports?
Ans- Golf
Q- What is the national game of USA?
Ans- Baseball
Q- Rugby Football is a national game of which country?
Ans- Scotland and England
Q- Lal Bahadur Shastri Stadium in Hyderabad is mainly for which sports?
Ans- Hockey
Q- How many players are in Kabaddi on each side?
Ans- 7
Q- How many players are on one side in Baseball?
Ans- 9
Q- What is the national game of Malaysia?
Ans- Badminton
Q- British Open is related to which sports?
Ans- Badminton
Q- Meredka Cup is related to which sports?
Ans- Football

General knowledge for Exams

1. Which among the following states won the best state award in the 34th National Games held in Ranchi in early 2011?
(A)West Bengal
(B)Tamil Nadu
(D)Meghalaya                                                                               Manipur

2. Which among the following is the largest nuclear power station of India by capacity?
(A)Tarapur Atomic Power Station, Maharastra
(B)Rajasthan Atomic Power Station, Rawatbhata
(C)Kaiga Atomic Power Station, Karnataka
(D)Madras Atomic Power Station, Kalpakkam, Tamil Nadu

Ans- With a capacity of 1400 MW, today, Tarapur is the largest nuclear power station in India.

3. Presence of which among the following salts in water causes Blue Baby Syndrome?
(D)Nitrates                                                                                  Ans- Nitrates

4. In which among the following years, Essentials Commodities act enacted?
(D)1971                                                                                    Ans- 1995

5. Where is located the Birbal Sahni Institute of Palaeobotany?
(D)Chandigarh                                                                         Ans- Lucknow

6. In which of the following plants , you can find Leghemoglobin?

(D)Brinjal                                                                                 Ans- Soyabean

7. A near pandemic Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS), which affected many parts of the world in 2002-3 was caused due to which among the following?
(D)Fungus                                                                                Ans- Virus

8. Which among the following states is largest producer of Coffee in India?
(A)Tamil nadu
(B)Andhra Pradesh
(D)Kerala                                                                               Ans- Karnataka

9. Which among the following states of India was carved out of United Khasi Hills and Jaintia Hills, and the Garo Hills on 21 January 1972?
(D)Nagaland                                                                          Ans- Meghalaya

10. Consider the following:
1. French
2. Tamil
3. Telugu
4. Malayalam
Which among the above are the official languages of Union Territory of Puducherry?
(A) 1 & 2
(B) 1,2 &,3
(C) 1,2,3 & 4
(d) 1,2 & 4                                                                            Ans- 1,2,3 & 4

11. From which among the following parts of a plant Cinnamon is obtained?
(D)Bark                                                                                  Ans- Bark

12. The Mocha Town, which was once famous and largest exporter of Mocha Coffee is located in which among the following countries?
(D)Ethiopia                                                                           Ans- Yemen

13. Which among the following Island of the Andaman Nicobar islands contains the only known examples of mud volcanoes in India, called locally as jalki
(A)Baratang Island
(B)Barren Island
(C)Car Nicobar
(D)Havelock Island                                                            Ans- Baratang Island

14. Interview Island is the part of which among the following in India?
(B)Andaman Nicobar Islands
(D)Puducherry                                                                   Ans- Andaman Nicobar Islands

15. In which of the following states is located the Indian Astronomical Observatory?
(B)Uttar Pradesh
(D)Jammu & Kashmir                                                        Ans- Jammu & Kashmir, located in Leh

General knowledge for Exams

1. The Father of Indian Industry is
Jamshedji Tata
2. The Shakespeare of India is
3. The Other name of this Country is Emerald Island
4. The Granite City of the World is
Abardeen, Scotland
5. India s First Newspaper is
Bengal Gazette
6. The most Populous City of India is
7. The beneficiary Sector of the Central Government Scheme ‘Ganga
Kalyan Yojana’ is
8. The Older Name of State Bank of India is
Imperial Bank of India
9. The abbreviation of IFCI is
Industrial Finance Corporation of India
10. The World AIDS Day is
December 1
11. This Lady Freedom Fighter is the founder of the Newspaper called ?New
India is
Annie Besant
12. He is the founder of Mughal Emperor
13.This is the First Bank which was established in India
Bank of Hindustan
14. The Unit of Time is
15. He is the First Governor of Reserve Bank of India
Sir Smith

Objective General Knowledge Questions & Answers

1. The last Governor-General of British-India was
(A) Lord Wavell
(B) Lord Mountbatten 
(C) Lord Simon
(D) Lord Irwin
2. Some of the Princely States refused to join the Indian Union after Independence. Point the odd one out.
(A) Kashmir
(B) Junagarh 
(C) Hyderabad
(D) Gwalior
3. The great Indian saint who said, “There is neither a Hindu nor a Muslim: only man” was
(A) Guru Nanak 
(B) Kabir 
(C) Sheikh Farid 
(D) Swami Vivekananda
4. Most important feature of the Indian culture is
(A) its continuity 
(B) healthy attitude towards all life 
(C) toleration 
(D) unity in diversity
5. Home Rule Movement was started by
(A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak 
(B) Mahatma Gandhi 
(C) Vivekananda 
(D) Annie Besant
6. The first country which recognized the emergence of Bangladesh was
(A) Sri Lanka
(B) Soviet Russia 
(D) India
7. The Harappan Civilization belongs to
(A) Bronze Age
(B) Neolithic Age 
(C) Paleolithic Age
(D) Iron Age
8. Hiuen-Tsang, the Chinese Pilgrim visited India during the reign of
(A) Ashoka the Great 
(B) Chandragupta I
(C) Harshavardhana 
(D) Chandragupta Maurya
9. Choose the correct pair
(A) EIlora Cave – Saka 
(B) Mahabalipurarn – Rashtrakutas 
(C) Meenakshi Temple – Pallavas 
(D) Khajuraho – ChandeIlas
10. Which Indian ruler conquered Java and Sumatra?
(A) Rajaraja Chola
(B) Rajendra Chola 
(C) Samudragupta
(D) Vikramaditya
11. Raja Rammohan Roy was the founder of
(A) Arya Samaj
(B) Brahmo Samaj 
(C) Ramakrishna Mission
(D) Prarthana Samaj
12. The 1857 uprising failed mainly because
(A) the British got the support of Gurkhas 
(B) the military supremacy of the British
(C) lack of planning and leadership on the Indian side
(D) betrayal of Indians
13. Fibre crops are
(A) Jute, Sugarcane, Linseed and Rice 
(B) Cotton, Maize, Tobacco and Banana 
(C) Cotton, Hemp, Jute and Mesta 
(D) Hemp, Cotton, Maize and Saffron
14. The delta-forming rivers in India are
(A) Ganges, Mahanadi & Narmada 
(B) Krishna, Ganges & Tapti 
(C) Kaveri, Ganges & Mahanadi
(D) Narmada, Tapti & Krishna
15. Area-wise, the biggest State in India is
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Arunachal Pradesh
16. Who among the following attended all the three Round Table Conferences?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru 
(B) Dr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar 
(C) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel 
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
17. The call for “total revolution” was given by
(A) Mahatma Gandhi 
(B) Bhagat Singh 
(C) Dr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar 
(D) Jayprakash Narayan
18. The first Communist Chief Minister of a state was
(A) Jyoti Basu 
(B) Ajoy Mukerjee
(C) Achuta Menon 
(D) E. M. S. Namboodiripad
19. The southern-most tip of India is in
(A) Kanyakumari 
(B) Andaman and Nicobar Islands 
(C) Thiruvananthapuram 
(D) Lakshadweep
20. Most industrialized country in Asia is
(A) Japan
(B) South Korea 
(C) Taiwan
(D) Malaysia
21. The line demarcating the boundary between India and China is
(A) Radcliffe line
(B) Mac Mohan line 
(C) Durand line
(D) Stratford line
22. The residuary powers have been given to the
(A) State Legislatures 
(B) Union Parliament 
(C) Both the State Legislatures and the Union Parliament 
(D) Local Bodies
23. The President of India is the
(A) Head of the State 
(B) Head of Government 
(C) Head of State as well as Government 
(D) None of these
24. Directive Principles of State Policy aim at
(A) ensuring individual liberty 
(B) ensuring and strengthening the country’s independence 
(C) protecting the depressed classes 
(D) providing social and economic base for genuine democracy in the country
25. Which one of the following provides constitutional guarantee of personal freedom?
(A) Quo warranto
(B) Mandamus 
(C) Certiorari 
(D) Habeas corpus
26. The first woman to become the Prime Minister in the world was
(A) Indira Gandhi 
(B) Margaret Thatcher 
(C) Sumavo Bhandarnaike
(D) Kun Campbell
27. Intelligence Bureau looks after
(A) the espionage work in the world
(B) the espionage work within the territory of India
(C) the economic crimes committed in India
(D) None of these
28. Access to raw material is the main basis for the location of
(A) Sugarcane Industry 
(B) Aluminium Industry 
(C) Electronic Industry 
(D) Hi-tech Industry
29. The velocity of wind is related to
(A) Revolution of the earth 
(B) Rotation of the earth 
(C) Pressure gradient
(D) Temperature
30. Which one of the following Union Territories of India has more than one district?
(A) Chandigarh 
(B) Dadra and Nagar Haveli 
(C) Lakshadweep 
(D) Pondicherry
31. Who was the political guru of Mahatma Gandhi?
(A) Dadabhai Naoroji
(B) Gopalkrishna Gokhale 
(C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak 
(D) Lala Lajpat Rai
32. Most important stimulant in tea leaves is
(A) Brucine
(B) Caffeine 
(C) Phenylalanine
(D) Theine
33. In an election, electioneering has to be stopped in a Constituency
(A) 24 hours before the poll commences 
(B) 24 hours before the closing hour of polling 
(C) 48 hours before the hour of commencement of polling 
(D) 48 hours before the closing hour of polling
34. The best source of revenue for the State Government is
(A) Sales tax
(B) Entertainment tax 
(C) Excise duty
(D) Motor vehicles tax
35. The main cause for inflation in India is
(A) Deficit budget
(B) Increase in expenditure on Defense
(C) Increase in money supply
(D) Plan expenditure
36. New Economic Policy deals with
(A) Privitization
(B) Globalization
(C) Liberalization
(D) All of the above
37. Who is authorized to impose reasonable restriction on Fundamental Rights?
(A) The Supreme Court 
(B) The President 
(C) The Prime Minister 
(D) The Parliament
38. International Monetary Fund helps the member countries
(A) in their short period disequilibrium in their balance of payments 
(B) in their long period disequilibrium in their balance of payments 
(C) advises the member countries on economic and monetary matters 
(D) All the above
39. The commodity for which India spends the largest amount to import is
(A) Iron and Steel
(B) Food grains 
(C) Crude Petroleum
(D) Fertilizers
40. The Headquarters of Asian Development Bank is at
(A) Paris
(B) Washington 
(C) Manila
(D) Canberra

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