Category Archives: sample paper

AFCAT August 2011 sample paper

Indian Air Force has provided the sample model paper for AIR FORCE COMMON ADMISSION TEST (AFCAT) August 28, 2011 exam. The syllabusand section for AFCAT 2011 August exam is:



SCHEME OF SYLLABUS
1. The AFCAT Question Paper will have 100 questions.  All questions will be of three marks
each.  For every correct answer the candidate will get three marks and for every wrong answer
one mark will be deducted under negative marking.  The total time  allotted for the paper is two
hours.

2. Each Question Paper will have questions from the following topics:-
(a)  General Awareness – History, Sports, Geography, Environment, Civics, Basic Science, Defence, Art, Culture, Current Affairs, Politics etc.

(b)  Verbal Ability in English – Comprehension, Error Detection,  Sentence Completion, Synonyms, Antonyms and Testing of Vocabulary.

(c)  Numerical Ability – Decimal Fraction, Simplification, Average, Profit  & loss, Percentage, Ratio & Proportion and Simple interest.      

(d)  Reasoning and Military Aptitude Test – Verbal Skills and Spatial  Ability.

AFCAT previous year solved paper

AFCAT July 2012 Course application For all Candidates

Indian Air Force invites applications from men and women candidates for Air Force Common Admission Test (AFCAT) for the Courses commencing July 2012 .

Under July 2012 course applications are invited for the following course:

Applications invited for Air Force Common Admission Test (AFCAT) for the Courses commencing July 2012. Exam date is August 28, 2011

81st Aeronautical Engineers Course (AEC) Men Permanent Commission Technical Branch
10th SSC Flying Branch for Men
53nd Short Service Commission Course (SSC) Men & Women Technical Branch
132nd Ground Duty Officers Course (GDOC) for Permanent Commission  for Men
25th  Ground Duty Officers Course (GDOC) for Short Service Commission (SSC)   for Men
39th Short Service Commission (SSC) Flying Branch for Women
41st  Ground Duty Officers Course (GDOC) for SSC  for Women.

For Men candidates download full details here and download AFCAT August 2011 exam here

And for women candidates details here and download application form here

Last date: July 11, 2011.


Like always we would be uploading study materiel, books, model sample paper, based on previous year papers, syllabus and exam pattern for August 2011 AFCAT exam. 

civil engg mcq test

Solved multiple choice question of Civil Engineering
Civil Engineering Quiz
Questions and answers related to the Civil Engineering
1. Which one of the following tests is performed in the laboratory to determine the extent of weathering of aggregates for road works?
(a) Soundness test
(b) Crushing test
(c) Impact test
(d) Abrasion test
Ans. (a)
2. Which one of the following geometric features requires the magnitudes of weaving angle and weaving distance for its design?
(a) Rotary design
(b) Right-angle intersection
(c) Roundabout
(d) Grade-separated junction
Ans. (a)
3. Which one of the following methods is used in the design of rigid pavements?
(a) CBR method
(b) Group index method
(c) Westergaard’s method
(d) McLeod’s method
Ans. (c)
4. In which one of the following yards, are reception, sorting and dispatch of railway wagons done?
(a) Loco yard
(b) Marashalling yard
(c) Goods yard
(d) Passenger yard
Ans. (b)
5. Which one of the following is not a desirable property of the subgrade soil as a highway meterial?
(a) Stability
(b) Ease of compaction
(c) Good drainage
(d) Bitumen adhesion
Ans. (d)
6. Consider the following statements:
In surverying operations, the word ‘reciprocal’ can be associated with
1. ranging
2. levelling
3. contouring
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (b)
7. How many- sidereal days are there in a solar year?
(a) 365.2840
(b) 366.2422
(c) 360.2500
(d) 365.0000
Ans. (b)
8. Consider the following statements
A sidereal year can be defined as the time interval:
1. between two successive transits .of the sun through the meridian of any of the fixed stars
2. between two successive passages of the sun through perigee
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 3 only
(b) 1and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 only
Ans. (b)
9. Which one of the following methods of computing area assumes that the short, lengths of the boundary between the ordinates
are parabolic ares?
(a) Average ordinate rule
(b) Middle ordinate rule
(c) Simpson’s rule
(d) Trapezoidal rule
Ans. (c)
10. Which one the following errors is more severe in plane-table surveying?
(a) Defective sighting
(b) Defective orientation
(c) Movement of board between sights
(d) Non-horizontality of board when points sighted are at large differences of their elevation .
Ans. (b)
11. Which one of the following sets of factors is related to design of thickness rigid pavement by Westergaard method?
(a) CBR value and stiffness index of soil
(b) Deflection factor and traffic index
(c) Swelling index and bulk modulus
(d) Radius of relative stiffness and modulus of subgrade reaction
Ans. (d)
12. Consider the following in relation to group index of soil:
1. Liquid limit
2. Sandy loam
3. Plasticity index
4. Per cent passing 75 microns sieve
Which of the above is/are used for estimating the group index?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans. (d)
13. Which set of traffic functional design as well as for ‘highway capacity’ design?
(a) Origin and destination studies
(b) Parking and accident studies
(c) Speed and volume studies
(d) Axle load studies
Ans. (a)
14. Which one of the following traffic survey schemes is most relevant when deciding on locating major ‘routes’ in a city?
(a) Traffic volume survey
(b) Origin and destination survey
(c) Speed survey
(d) Traffic capacity survey
Ans. (b)
15. Which one of the following equipments is useful in determining spot speed in traffic engineering?
(a) Endoscope
(b) Periscope
(c) Radar
(d) Tachometer
Ans. (c)
16. Hot bitumen is sprayed over freshly constructed bituminous surface followed by spreading of 6.3 mm coarse aggregates
and rolled. Which one of the following is indicated by this type of construction?
(a) Surface dressing
(b) Gravel-bitumen mix
(c) Liquid seal coat
(d) Seal coat
Ans. (a)
17. Radius of relative stiffness of cement concrete pavement does not depend upon which one of the following?
(a) Modulus of subgrade reaction
(b) Wheel load
(c) Modulus of elasticity of cement concrete
(d) Poisson’s ratio of concrete
Ans. (b)
18. For conditions obtaining in India, at which location in a cement concrete payement will the combined stresses due to traffic
wheel studies is needed for well as for ‘highway load and temperature have to be critically checked during design?
(a) Corner
(b) Corner and interior
(c) Corner and edge
(d) Corner, edge and interior
Ans. (d)
19. Consider the following factors:
1. The change in the shape and size of the channel cross-section
2. The change in the slope of the channel
3. The presence of obstruction
4. The change in the frictional forces at the boundaries
Which of the above factors would cause a gradually varied flow?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
Ans. (a)
20. Under which one of the following categories is the river Ganga classified in the reach through UP and Bihar?
(a) Straight river
(b) Meandering river
(c) Braided river
(d) Deltaic river
Ans. (b)
21. Which of the following categories best describes the Hirakud reservoir?
(a) Reservoir for irrigation and power
(b) Reservoir for flood control, power and irrigation
(c) Reservoir for irrigation and water supply
(d) Reservoir for recreation and fishery
Ans. (b)
22.. During a particular stage of the growth of a crop, consumptive use of water is 2.8 mm/day. If the amount of water available
in the soil is 25% of 80 mm depth of water what is the frequency of irrigation?
(a) 9 days
(b) 13 days
(c) 21 days
(d) 25 days
Ans. (c)
23.. Consider the following statements:
Irrigation water has to be supplied to the crops when the moisture level falls
1. below field capacity
2. to wilting point
3. below wilting point
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3
Ans. (a)
24.. A groundwater basin consists of 10 km2 area of plains. The maximum groundwater table fluctuation has been observed
to be 1.5 m. Consider specific yield of the basin as 10%. What is the available groundwater storage in million cubic metres?
(a) 1.0
(b) 1.5
(c) 2.5
(d) 2.0
Ans. (b)
25. Consider the following chemical emulsions:
1. Methyl alcohol
2. Cetyl alcohol
3. Stearyl alcohol
4. Kerosene
Which of the above chemical emulsions is/are used to minimize the loss of water through the process of evaporation?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
26. A catchment area of 60 ha has a runoff coefficient of 0.40. If a storm of intensity 3cm h and duration longer than the time
of concentration occurs in the catchment, then what is the peak discharge?
(a) 2.0 m3/s
(b) 3.5 m3/s
(c) 4.5 m3/s
(d) 2.5 m3/s
Ans. (a)
27. Which combination of surface water quality parameters will indicate sweep coagulation as the preferred mechanism of coagulation?.
(a) High turbidity — low alkalinity
(b) High turbidity — high alkalinity
(c) Low turbidity — high alkalinity
(d) Low turbidity — low alkalinity
Ans. (b)
28. In a canal irrigation project, 76% of the culturable command area (CCA) remained without water during Kharif season; and
58% of CCA remained without water during Rabi season in a particular year. Rest of the areas got irrigated in each crop
respectively. What is the intensity of irrigation for the project in that year?
(a) 134%
(b) 76%
(c) 66%
(d) 58%
Ans. (b)
29. What is the critical combination of vertical and horizontal earthquake accelerations to be considered for checking the stability
of a gravity dam in reservoir full condition?
(a) Vertically upward and horizontally downstream
(b) Vertically upward and horizontally upstream
(c) Vertically downward and horizontally upstream
(d) Vertically downward and horizontally downstream
Ans. (d)
30. What is the height of wave which is likely to be generated by a wind of 80 km/hr in a reservoir having a fetch of 50 km:
(a) 0.5m
(b) 1.0 m
(c) 2.0 m
(d) 3.0 m
Ans. (c)
31. Consider the following statements:
1. Giving equal weightings to horizontal and vertical creeps for design of weir foundations is one of the drawbacks of Kennedy’s theory.
2. Khosla’s theory of design of foundations for weirs is based on potential theory.
3. Piping problem can be reduced by increasing the length of floor.
4. In Lane’s weighted creep theory, horizontal creep is given less weightage compared to vertical creep.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
Ans. (b)
32. The power transmitted through a pipeline is maximum when the head lost due to friction in the pipe is equal to:
(a) the total supply head
(b) half of the total supply head
(c) one-third of the total supply head
(d) one-fourth of the total supply head
Ans. (c)
33. Consider the following with respect to the application of the Navier-Stokes equations:
1. Laminar flown in circular pipes
2. Laminar flow between concentric rotating cylinders
3. Laminar unidirectional flow between stationary parallel plates
4. Laminary unit directional flow between parallel plates having relative motion
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only.
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (c)
34. In a siphon system employed for carrying water from a reservoir A at a higher elevation to another reservoir B at lower elevation, both
being separated by a higher hill, what will be the pressure at the ‘Summit’ (S)?
(a) Equal to the pressure at the water surface of reservoir A
(b) Higher than the pressure at the water surface of reservoir A
(c) Equal to the pressure at the water surface of reservoir B
(d) Less than the pressure at both A and B above
Ans. (d)
35. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I                                                List-II
A. Rehbock formula                     1. Sutro weir
B. Francis formula                       2. Rectangular suppressed weir
C. A special trapezoidal weir         3. Rectangular side- contracted weir
D. Linear proportional weir           4. Cippolletti weir
Code:
A              B              C              D
(a)             1              3              4              2
(b)            2              4              3              1
(c)             1              4              3              2
(d)            2              3              4              1
Ans. (d)
36. Consider the following statements related to undersluices provided in diversion weirs on permeable foundations:
I. They are fully gate-controlled and have crest at the same level as the weir crest when no silt excluders are provided.
2. They scour the silt deposited on the river bed in the pockets upstream of the canal head regulator.
3. It is not necessary to provide end pile line on the downstream end of the undersluice floor.
4. The discharge capacity of the undersluice is 10-15% of the maximum flood or two times the maximum discharge of the offtaking canal or
maximum winter discharge, whichever is the highest.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 3 and 4 only
Ans. (b)
37. What is the theoretical oxygen demand of 300 mg/L glucose solution?
(a) 300 mg/L
(b) 320 mg/L
(c) 350 mg/L
(d) 400 mg/L
Ans. (b)
38. Consider the following:
1. Force on pipe bends and transitions
2. Jet propulsion
3. Flow velocities in open channel
4. Vortex flow
Which of the above admit employing the moment of momentum equation?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (d)
39. Consider the following statements:
1. Shear stress is maximum at the centre line.
2. Maximum velocity is 3\2 times the average velocity
3. Discharge varies inversely with the coefficient of viscosity.
4. Slope of hydraulic gradient line increases linearly with the velocity of flow.
Which of the above statements are correct in connection with a steady laminar flow through a circular pipe?
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4
Ans. (b)
40. Consider the following statements:
Cavitation generally results from a combination of several influences
1. by reduction of pressure intensity below a limiting value
2. by increase in either elevation or the velocity of flow
3. by reduction of pressure load in the system
4. by decrease in the velocity of flow
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 and 4
Ans. (b)
41. What is Hydrological Cycle?
(a) Processes involved in the transfer of moisture from sea to land
(b) Processes involved in the transfer of moisture from sea back again
(c) Processes involved in the transfer of water from snowmelt in mountains
(d) Processes involved in the transfer of moisture from sea to land and back to sea again
Ans. (d)
42. Consider the following with respect to a double-mass curve:
I. Plot of accumulated rainfall with respect to two chronological orders
2. Plot for estimating multiple missing rainfall data
3. Plot for checking the consistency of the rainfall data
4. Plot of accumulated annual rainfall of a station vs. accumulated rainfall of a group of stations
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
Ans. (c)
43. Generally to estimate PMP, Pm = 42. 16D0.475 is used (Pm is maximum depth of precipitation, D = duration). What are the units of Pand D in the equation?
(a) mm, sec
(b) cm, sec
(ë) mm, hr
(d) cm, hr
Ans. (d)
44. A triangular direct runoff hydrograph due to a storm has a time base of 60 hr and a peak flow of 30m3/s occurring at 20 hr
from the start. If the catchment area is 300 km2, what is the rainfall excess in the storm?
(a) 50 mm
(b) 20 mm
(c) 10.8 mm
(d) 8.3 mm
Ans. (c)
45. A 3 hr unit hydrograph U1 of a catchment of area 235 km2 is in the form of a triangle with peak discharge 30 m3/s. Another
3 hr unit hydrograph U2 is also triangular in shape and has the same base width as U1, but has a peak flow of 90 m3/s. What
is the catchment area of U2?
(a) 117.5 km2
(b) 235 km2
(c) 470 km2
(d) 705 km2
Ans. (d)
46. While selecting a centrifugal pump for your requirement of head and discharge on the basis of its performance characteristics,
which one of the following criteria is to be adopted?
(a) Head, discharge and efficiency
(b) Head and discharge only
(c) Discharge only
(d) Head only
Ans. (a)
47. Consider the following statements:
The function of the impeller in a centrifugal pump is to:
1. Convert the pressure energy into hydraulic energy
2. Convert the hydraulic energy into mechanical energy
3. Convert the mechanical energy into hydraulic energy
4. transform most of the kinetic energies to pressure energy
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (b)
48. A centrifugal pump gives maximum efficiency when its impeller blades are
(a) bent forward
(b) bent backward
(c) straight
(d) wave-shaped
Ans. (b)
49. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the the code given below the
Lists-I                                       List-II
A. Spiral casing                                          1. To allow flow of water through it to produce a torque
for the rotation of the runner
B. Stay ring                                               2. To direct the water on the runner at an
appropriate angle
C. Guide vane                                             3. To distribute the flow over the periphery of the runner
D. Runner                                                  4. To act as column helping to support the electrical
generator above the turbine
Code:
A         B              C              D
(a) 3          2              4              1
(b) 1          2              4              3
(c) 3          4              2              1
(d) 1          4              2              3
Ans. (c)
50. By which one of the following, a small quantity of water may be lifted to a great height?
(a) Hydraulic ram
(b) Hydraulic crane
(c) Hydraulic lift
(d) Hydraulic coupling
Ans. (a)

LIC AAO sample model papers, previous year paper book | download for free

LIC AAO 2011 practice book can now be downloaded for free. This book has practice paper for all major sections like English, Maths, Reasoning and GK. Besides offering detailed syllabus and explanation is a very easy manner. Not to mention section wise tests and full length test, which are based on previous year papers of LIC AAO.

Download LIC AAO Practice book here

Group I Exam Latest Sample Model Paper Questions 4

01. If the third Monday in a month is 17th, which of the following days will occur five times in that month ?
  • 1. Tuesday
  • 2. Thursday
  • 3. Friday
  • 4. Saturday
02. The day at which the Earth reaches closest to the Sun is ?
  • 1. Perihelion
  • 2. Aphelion
  • 3. Summer Solstice
  • 4. Winter Solstice
03. The incoming solar radiation is known as ?
  • 1. Reflection
  • 2. Isolation
  • 3. Radiation
  • 4. Refraction
04. The place where diesel locomotives are manufactured is ?
  • 1. Perambur
  • 2. Jamshedpur
  • 3. Varanasi
  • 4. Chittaranjan
05. To reach Sri Lanka from Nagercoil of Tamil Nadu, one has to cross ?
  • 1. Sunda Strait
  • 2. Palk Strait
  • 3. Gulf of Mannar
  • 4. Gulf of Kutch

Competitive Exams Business Marketing Questions

01. Realtionship marketing emphasizes……. rather than individual transactions and pre-case customer resolution ?
  • 1) customer retention and continual satisfaction
  • 2) cost
  • 3) Brand
  • 4) Image
  • 5) Price
02. Realtionship marketing is a ?
  • 1) Natural teams
  • 2) Brand management
  • 3) Cross functional teams
  • 4) All of these
  • 5) None of these
03. What is SEO?
  • 1) Sales-Engine Method
  • 2) Search Engine Optimization
  • 3) Sales-Even-Organization
  • 4) All of these
  • 5) None of these
04. Internet marketing involves ?
  • 1) Display advertising
  • 2) E-mail marketing
  • 3) E-mail marketing software
  • 4) interactive advertising
  • 5) All of these
05. Which is the example of service quality in banks ?
  • 1) Non – performing assets of bank
  • 2) Merger
  • 3) ATM Facility
  • 4) Commutation
  • 5) Bank Rate
06. Service is a ?
  • 1) Tangible
  • 2) Intangible
  • 3) Product
  • 4) Tool of planning and consumption
  • 5) All of these
07. Global marketing is a result of ?
  • 1) Domestic changes
  • 2) Globalization
  • 3) Privatization
  • 4) Socialization
  • 5) Liberalization
08. Which is the product of green marketing ?
  • 1) polluted Water
  • 2) Polluted Milks
  • 3) Free of toxic chemical
  • 4) All of these
  • 5) None of these
09. Green marketing may be ?
  • 1) Environment friendly
  • 2) Product friendly
  • 3) Polluted
  • 4) Risk less
  • 5) All of these
10. Which is a part of green marketing ?
  • 1) Waste management
  • 2) Re-using
  • 3) Reducing
  • 4) Re-cycling
  • 5) All of these

DIET– CET 2011 Exam Model Grand Test Questions

01. New Delhi is …. capital city of India choose the right to fill in the blank ?
  • 1) an
  • 2) a
  • 3) the
  • 4) others
02. Can I carry your luggage ?
  • 1) seeking permission
  • 2) apologizing
  • 3) order
  • 4) offering help
03. Columbus ……. America ?
  • 1) invented
  • 2) discovered
  • 3) found
  • 4) none of these
04. Where ….. we go to buy books ?
  • 1) does
  • 2) shall
  • 3) will
  • 4) none
05. Sudhan Chandran is interested…… dancing ?
  • 1) at
  • 2) in
  • 3) with
  • 4) none
06. The police have arrested by the thief change the voice ?
  • 1) the thief has been arrested by the police
  • 2) the thief was arrested by the police
  • 3) the thief have been arrested by the police
  • 4) the thief had arrested by the police
07. I have seen you before….. ?
  • 1) have I?
  • 2) have you?
  • 3) haven’t I?
  • 4) do I ?
08. If I were a bird,….. in the sky Fill in the blanks choosing the most suitable clause from among the following ?
  • 1) I could fly
  • 2) Iwill fly
  • 3) i could have fly
  • 4) I can fly
09. Lakshman is a (biographer) The underlined word means ?
  • 1) who write novels
  • 2) what write stories
  • 3) write detctive books
  • 4) write the life history of others
10. “Can I ask you a question ?” the inspector said to the man which of the following is the right way of representing the question ?
  • 1) the inspector asked the man if he could ask him a question
  • 2) the inspector asked the man can he could ask him a question
  • 3) the inspector said the man thet he can ask him a question
  • 4) the inspector told the that he could ask him a question

Group 1 Previous Exam Model Questions

01. Who built the Stupa at Sanchi in Madhya Pradesh ?
  • 1. Harsha
  • 2. Ashoka
  • 3. Kanishka
  • 4. Chamdragupta
02. The Khajuraho shrines built by Chandella rulers are dedicated to ?
  • 1. Vishnu and Shiva
  • 2. Indra and Varun
  • 3. Shiva and Parvati
  • 4. Vishnu and Brahma
03. An example of Chola architecture can be seen at
  • 1. Ellora
  • 2. Mahabalipuram
  • 3. Tanjore
  • 4. Kanchipuram
04. The caves and rock-cut temples at Ellora are ?
  • 1. Buddhist
  • 2. Buddhist and Jain
  • 3. Hindu and Jain
  • 4. Hindu, Buddhist and Jain
05. Who among the following are credited to have built the famous Ellora caves ?
  • 1. Rashtrakutas
  • 2. Cholas
  • 3. Satavahzmas
  • 4. Chews
06. Gandhara School of Art was established in ?
  • 1. Western India
  • 2. Eastern India
  • 3. Southern India
  • 4. North-Western India
07. Hyderabad is cooler in summer because ?
  • 1. It is far away from the sea-coast
  • 2. It is in Telangana Plakay
  • 3. It is situated at a higher elevation
  • 4. It gets heavy rainfall
08. Sandalwood tress grow in the forests of ?
  • 1. Khammam
  • 2. Anantapur
  • 3. West Godavari
  • 4. Nizamabad
09. Turpentine is obtained from ?
  • 1. Bamboo tree
  • 2. Teakwood
  • 3. Khir plants
  • 4. Pine trees
10. The month of cyclones is ?
  • 1. December
  • 2. June
  • 3. October
  • 4. November

Group 2 Previous Exam Model Questions

01. Andhra State was formed in ?
  • 1. 1947
  • 2. 1942
  • 3. 1953
  • 4. 1956
02. Araku Valley is in the district of ?
  • 1. Vijayanagaram
  • 2. West Godavari
  • 3. Visakhapatnam
  • 4. Srikakulam03. The Krishna joins the Bay of Bengal at ?
  • 1. Snsailam
  • 2. Vijayawada
  • 3. Machilipatnam
  • 4. Hamsaladeevi
04. The Krishna river joins its tributary Tungabhadra at ?
  • 1. Machilipatnam in Krishna district
  • 2. Basar in Adilabad district
  • 3. Sangam in Kurnool district
  • 4. Kalleru in Krishna district
05. The biggest district in Andhra Pradesh is ?
  • 1. Guntur
  • 2. Hyderabad
  • 3. West Godawari
  • 4. Anantapur
06. Sarnath’s Lion Capital is attributed to ?
  • 1. Kanishka
  • 2. Harshavardhan
  • 3. Ashoka
  • 4.Chandragupta
07. In Andhra Pradesh the area under agriculture is ?
  • 1. 22 million hectares
  • 2. 14.1 million hectares
  • 3. 15.5 million hectares
  • 4. 40.5 million hectares
08. One example of food crop is ?
  • 1. Tea
  • 2. Jute
  • 3. Coffee
  • 4. Paddy
09. Which of the following is a cash crop ?
  • 1. Rice
  • 2. Jowar
  • 3. Tobacco
  • 4. Wheat
10. The forest coverage of the total area in our state is ?
  • 1. 33%
  • 2. 14.61%
  • 3. 16.41%
  • 4. 20%

IAS Prelims History/ Quiz

1. Which one of the following iqtas was held
by Sultan Iltutamish as its muqta’i
immediately before his accession?
a. Kalpi
b. Lakhanauti
c. Kalinjar
d. Budaun
2. Amir Khusrau’s Khazain-ul Futuh gives an
account of the military campaigns of
a. Malik Kafur in south India
b. Sultan Balban in the Mewat region
c. Muhammad Tughlaq in Gujarat
d. Feroze Tughlaq in Orissa
3. The title Sultan-us-Sharq was assumed by
the rulers of
a. Assam
b. Bengal
c. Jaunpur
d. Orissa
4. Which one of the following sultans
introduced a rural tax called Haqq-i-
Sharq?
a. Iltumish
b. Alauddin Khalji
c. Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
d. Feroze Tughlaq
5. Which of the following are correctly
matched?
A (Saints) (B) (Mystic order)
1. Shakh nasiruddin…… Suhrawardi
Chirag Delhi.
2. Sheikh bahauddin …… Chisti
Zakaria.
3. Shaikh Sharfuddin ……. Firdusi
4. Shaikh Nuruddin ……. Rishi
5. Shaikh Baqi Billah…… Naqshbandi
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 5
d. 3, 4 and 5
6. Given below are tow statements, one
labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
lablled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): After the Kushans the
Turks brought the technique of
constructing the true arch on a massive
scale.
Reason (R): The Turks introduced into
India the technique of preparing limemortar.
In the context of the above two
statements which one of the following is
Correct?
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and r are true and R is not the
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but r is true
7. Which one of the following writers has
written a contemporary account of the
Vijaynagar Empire?
a. Shams Siraj Afif
b. Linschoten
c. Domingo paes
d. Pietro Della Valle
8. Krishnadeva Raya was the ruler of the
Vijayanager Empire between
a. A.D. 1485 and 1502
b. A.D. 1905 and 1530
c. A.D. 1533 and 1545
d. A.D. 1550 and 1565.
9. Who among the following Bahmani rulers
establishment matrimonial alliance with
one of the rajas of Vijaynagar.
a. Alaudding Bahman Shah I
b. Feroze Shah Bahamani
c. Mahmud Shah I
d. Ahmad Shah
10. The Bahamani Kingdom and Vijaynagar
Empire clashed frequently over the
territory of
a. Madurai
b. Warangal
c. Malabar
d. The Raichur Doab
11. The principal governor of the Vijaynagar
Empire were known as
a. Rautas
b. Nayakas
c. Poligars
d. Naiyars
12. In the succession issue of which one of the
following Rajput states Emperor Jahangir
intervened and gave tika to the person of
his choice?
a. Amber
b. Marwar
c. Bikaner
d. Jaisalmer
13. The Mughals lost out Quandahar to the
Safavides Forever in
a. A.D. 1606
b. A.D. 1617
c. A.D. 1622
d. A.D. 1632
14. Which of the following two kingdoms in
the Deccan were conquered by Auranzeb?
a. Bidar and Bijapur
b. Bijapur and Golkunda
c. Golkunda and Ahmadnagar
d. Ahmadnagar and Bijapur
15. Sher Shah Suri took only one-fourth of the
produce as land tax in
a. Sahsaram
b. Agra
c. Multan
d. Kagire 

1. Which one of the following iqtas was held
by Sultan Iltutamish as its muqta’i
immediately before his accession?
a. Kalpi
b. Lakhanauti
c. Kalinjar
d. Budaun
2. Amir Khusrau’s Khazain-ul Futuh gives an
account of the military campaigns of
a. Malik Kafur in south India
b. Sultan Balban in the Mewat region
c. Muhammad Tughlaq in Gujarat
d. Feroze Tughlaq in Orissa
3. The title Sultan-us-Sharq was assumed by
the rulers of
a. Assam
b. Bengal
c. Jaunpur
d. Orissa
4. Which one of the following sultans
introduced a rural tax called Haqq-i-
Sharq?
a. Iltumish
b. Alauddin Khalji
c. Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
d. Feroze Tughlaq
5. Which of the following are correctly
matched?
A (Saints) (B) (Mystic order)
1. Shakh nasiruddin…… Suhrawardi
Chirag Delhi.
2. Sheikh bahauddin …… Chisti
Zakaria.
3. Shaikh Sharfuddin ……. Firdusi
4. Shaikh Nuruddin ……. Rishi
5. Shaikh Baqi Billah…… Naqshbandi
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 5
d. 3, 4 and 5
6. Given below are tow statements, one
labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
lablled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): After the Kushans the
Turks brought the technique of
constructing the true arch on a massive
scale.
Reason (R): The Turks introduced into
India the technique of preparing limemortar.
In the context of the above two
statements which one of the following is
Correct?
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and r are true and R is not the
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but r is true
7. Which one of the following writers has
written a contemporary account of the
Vijaynagar Empire?
a. Shams Siraj Afif
b. Linschoten
c. Domingo paes
d. Pietro Della Valle
8. Krishnadeva Raya was the ruler of the
Vijayanager Empire between
a. A.D. 1485 and 1502
b. A.D. 1905 and 1530
c. A.D. 1533 and 1545
d. A.D. 1550 and 1565.
9. Who among the following Bahmani rulers
establishment matrimonial alliance with
one of the rajas of Vijaynagar.
a. Alaudding Bahman Shah I
b. Feroze Shah Bahamani
c. Mahmud Shah I
d. Ahmad Shah
10. The Bahamani Kingdom and Vijaynagar
Empire clashed frequently over the
territory of
a. Madurai
b. Warangal
c. Malabar
d. The Raichur Doab
11. The principal governor of the Vijaynagar
Empire were known as
a. Rautas
b. Nayakas
c. Poligars
d. Naiyars
12. In the succession issue of which one of the
following Rajput states Emperor Jahangir
intervened and gave tika to the person of
his choice?
a. Amber
b. Marwar
c. Bikaner
d. Jaisalmer
13. The Mughals lost out Quandahar to the
Safavides Forever in
a. A.D. 1606
b. A.D. 1617
c. A.D. 1622
d. A.D. 1632
14. Which of the following two kingdoms in
the Deccan were conquered by Auranzeb?
a. Bidar and Bijapur
b. Bijapur and Golkunda
c. Golkunda and Ahmadnagar
d. Ahmadnagar and Bijapur
15. Sher Shah Suri took only one-fourth of the
produce as land tax in
a. Sahsaram
b. Agra
c. Multan
d. Kagire 

31. After feroze Tughlaq of the Delhi
Sultanate the Mugha rule who paid
attention to the supply of water fro canal
was
a. Humayun
b. Akbhar
c. Jahangir
d. Shah Jahan
32. Who among the following were the sons
and grand sons and grandson Bahadur
Shah II and played a prominent role the
Febellio w of 1857 and were captured and
shot?
a. Bakhat Khan. Ahsanullh Khan and
Mahbub Ali.
b. Mirza Moghul, Mirza Khawaja Sultan
and Mirza Abu Bakr.
c. Prince Azam. Azim-ush-Shan and
Muazzam
d. Asad Khan, Kam Bakhash and
Jahandar Shah.
33. Which one of the following cities was
renamed Alinaga after its capture by Sirajud-
Daula in 1756?
a. Murshidabad
b. Falta
c. Calcutta
d. Kasimbazar
34. Hyder Ali consolidated his position after
being appointed the Faujdar of
a. Arcot
b. Budikota
c. Dindigul
d. Devanhalli
35. Ranjit Singh belonged to the Sikh misl of
a. Kanhaiya
b. Sukerchakia
c. Ahluwalia
d. Bhangi
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36. The abuses of the dastaks in Bengal by the
officials of the East Indiacompany led to
an estrangement of its relation ship with
a. Alivardi
b. Sirajuddaulah
c. Mir. Jafar
d. Mir Kasim.
37. Clive introduced dual government in
Bengal because
a. He was afraid of hostile reaction from
the people of Bengal.
b. The authorities of the eastIndia he
direct rule of the Company inBengal
c. The Mughal emperor was opposed to
the establishment of de jure authority
of the East India Company.
d. He wanted to avoid the responsibility
arising out of the establishment of de
jure authority of the East India
Company in Bengal.
38. Which one of the following is correctly
matched?
a. Sorabjee Bengali : Business magnate
b. Sir George Birdwood : Sheriff of
Bombay
c. Dinshaw Wacha : Founder of the
Swaraj party
d. C.R. Das: Educationist
39. Match list I with List II and select the
correct answer
List-I (Period)
A. 1833
B. 1793
C. 1792
D. 1769
List-II (Revenue Settlement)
1. Ryotwari
2. Mahalwari
3. Zamindari
4. Quinquennnial
5. Decennial
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 2 3 1 4
c. 2 3 5 4
d. 3 2 1 5
40. The Whitley Commission was concerned
with
a. Labour
b. Education
c. Public
d. Reorganization of civil service
41. The British government introduced
Portfolio system for the first time in
a. 1853
b. 1858
c. 1861
d. 1892
42. Match list I with List II and select the
correct answer
List-I (Period)
A. Vernacular Press Act of 1878
B. Indian Universities Act of 1904
C. Indian councils Act of 1909
D. Rowlatt Act of 1919
List-II (Revenue Settlement)
1. Lord Chelmsford
2. Lord Curzon’
3. Lord Lytton
4. Lord Minto
A B C D
a. 1 4 3 2
b. 2 3 1 4
c. 3 2 1 4
d. 3 2 4 1
43. Assertion (A): Despite initial victory the
Sepoy Mutiny could not succeed in
overthrowing the Raj.
Reason (R): The rising middle class sided
with the Raj.
In the context of the above two statements
which one of following is correct?
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not a
correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
44. Match list I with List II and select the
correct answer
List-I (Period)
A. Lakshmi Bai
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B. Tantia Tope’
C. Nana Saheb
D. Bahadur Shah
List-II (Revenue Settlement)
1. Deported to Rangoon’ Fled toNepal
2. Captured and Executed
3. Killed in a battle
4. Killed in a battle
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 2 3 4 1
c. 4 3 2 1
d. 4 2 3 1
45. The Indian Association played an
important role in arousing national
consciousness through the formation of the
Indian National congress
a. Indian National congress
b. Bengal British Indian Society
c. Indian national conference
d. British India association 

46. The Moplah Rebellion (1921) took place
in.
a. Telengana
b. Malabar
c. N.M. Lokhandy
d. N.G. Ranga
47. Who among the following was the first
leader to organize labour movement in
India?
a. B.P. Walia
b. Lal Lajpat Rai
c. N.M. Lokhandy
d. N.G. Ranga
48. Baba Ram Chandra organized peasants in
a. Avadh
b. Bihar
c. Bengal
d. Andhra
49. The first national news agency of India
was
a. the Indian Review
b. the Free Press of India
c. the Hindustan Review
d. the Associated Press of India
50. Match list I with List II and select the
correct answer
List-I (Name of the reform movement)
A. Satya Shodhak
B. Self Respect
C. Sarva Shodhak Samaj
D. Namdhari
List-II (Name of its protagonist)
1. Jotirao Govindrao Phule
2. E.V. Ramswami Naickar
3. Shahu Maharaj
4. Ram Singh
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 2 3 4 1
c. 3 4 1 2
d. 4 1 2 3
51. What is the correct sequence of the
following?
1. prohibition of Sati
2. Education Resolution
3. First University Act.
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1, 3 and 2
c. 2, 1 3
d. 3, 2 and 1
52. The Act discouraging child marriage was
passed in 1891 largely at the instance of
a. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar and
Bhartendu Harischandra.
b. Mahadv Govind Ranade and Jotiba
Phule
c. Keshab Chandra Sen and Behramji
Malabari
d. Keshab Chandra Sen and Mahadev
Govind Ramede
53. Given below are two statements one
labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In the Swadeshi and
Boycott movement of 1905-1908 in
Bengal, not on students and women but
peasants also actively participated.
Reason (R): This movement was a
powerful expression of resentment against
the Partition of Bengal.
6 of 11
In the context of the above two statements
which one of the following is correct?
a. Both and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R true but R is not a
correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
54. Which one of the following events helped
Gandhi who had returned fromSouth
Africa in 1915 more directly to emerge as
the undisputed leader of the Indian
National Congress?
a. Edwin Montagu’s announcement on 20
August 1917 in the House of
Commons that the policy of the British
Government would be the gradual
development of self governing
institutions with a view to the
progressive realization of responsible
government in India.
b. Annie Besant became almost overnight
a pro-Raj supporter after Montagu’s
promise of responsible government in
India.
c. B.G. Tilak departed for Englandin
September 1918 to fight a libel suit
against Valentine Chirol
d. The British Raj passed the Rowlett Act
on 18 March 1919 to suppers the
revolutionary movements against it.
55. Which one of the following was
essentially a mouthpiece of the Liberals?
a. New India
b. Leader
c. Young India
d. Free Press Journal
56. Who among the following were associates
of Bal Gangadhar Tilak?
1. Vishnu Krishna Chiplunkar
2. Gopal Ganesh Agarkar
3. Madhavrao Namjoshi
4. Rao Bahadur Madhavarao Wasudeva
Barve
a. 1, 2 and 4
b. 1, 3 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and3
57. Match list I with List II and select the
correct answer
List-I
A. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
B. Sri Aurobindo Ghos
C. Rabindranath Tagore
D. Mahatma Gandhi
List-II
1. “The British rule is a roller formidable
in its weight and power having its uses
but it does not help the soil to become
fertike,”
2. “Nationalism is a vinely appointed
Shakti of the internal and must do its
God given work before it returns to the
bosom of the University Energy from
which came.”
3. “A true Nationalist desire to build on
old foundations. We don’t want to
anglicize our institution and
denationalize – them in the name of
Social and Political Reforms.”
4. “I am not a visionary. I claim to be a
practical idealist.”
A B C D
a. 4 3 1 2
b. 1 2 3 4
c. 3 2 1 4
d. 3 4 2 1
58. In the committee which prepared the
Nehru Report (1928) the Liberal federation
was represented by.
a. M.R. Jaykar
b. Tej Bahadur Sapru
c. V.s. Srinivasa Sastri
d. M.S. Aney
59. The immediate case which led to the
launching of the Non-cooperation
movement was the
a. Khilafat Wrong
b. Rowlatt Act
c. Jallianwala Bagh massacre
d. Dissatisfaction with the Government of
India Act.. 1919.
60. What proposal was made in the “August
Offers” of 1940?
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a. Complete independence forIndia
gradually
b. Dominion status
c. Provincial autonomy
d. Representative Government at the Centre

61. A concrete outcome of the Wavell plan
was the
a. Holding of a referendum in theNorth
West Frontier Province.
b. Absorption of the State ofHyderabad
with the Indian Union.
c. Summoning of the Simla Conference.
d. The constitution of the Constituent
Assembly.
62. Which one of the following was the most
westerly outpost of the Harappan Culture?
a. Lothal
b. Sutkagen Dor
c. Rangpur
d. Manda
63. The most common type of Harappan seals
is
a. Square
b. Round
c. Cylindrical
d. oval
64. Consider the map showing some sites of
the early Indus
The places marked 1, 2, 3 and 4 are
respectively.
a. Mehrgarh, Kot Diji, Surkotda and
Kalibangan
b. Mehrgarh, Kalibangan. Kot Diji and
Surkotda
c. Rana Ghundai, Banavali. Surkotda and
Kot Diji
d. Rahman Dheri, Banvali, Kulli and
Tharro.
65. A terracotta replica of a plough has been
found at
a. Banavali
b. Kalibangan
c. Rakhigarhi
d. Rangpur
66. Consider the map given below:
Which one of the following cultures
flourished in the area shaded in the map?
a. Banas culture
b. Painted Grey Ware Culture
c. Malwa Culture
d. Jorwe Culture
67. Which one of the following cities was
most extensive in area?
a. Mohanjodaro
b. Harappa
c. Dholavira
d. Kalibangan
68. Which one of the following is not true
regarding the Rig Vedic good Indra?
a. He was fond of feasting and drinking
Soma juice.
b. He was the destroyer of Puras.’
c. The largest number of hymns are
addressed to him
d. He was uphold of the cosmic order
69. Match list I with List II and select the
correct answer
List-I (ancient names of rivers)
A. Sarasvati
B. Parushni
C. Shutudri
D. Vipas
List-II (Modern names)
1. Ravi
2. Beas
3. Sutlej
4. Jhelum
A B C D
a. 3 2 4 1
b. 5 1 3 2
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c. 3 1 2 4
d. 5 4 3 1
70. During the period of the Sudras the
Brahamanas were allowed to marry.
a. Only Brahmana girls
b. Brahamana and Kshatriya girls
c. Brahmana Kshatriya and Vaisya girls
d. Brahmans Kshtriya Vaisya and Sudra
girls.
71. “A bard am I, my father is a leech, and my
mother grinds com.” This passage occurs
in the.
a. Rigveda
b. Yajurveda
c. Dhammapada
d. Mrichchhakatikam
72. Sudas, the victor of the battle of Ten kings
belonged to the tribe of the
a. Anus
b. Druhyus
c. Bharatas
d. Sivis
73. The Vedangas consist of the
a. Kalpa, Siksha, Nirukta, Vyakarana.
Chandas, Joytisha.
b. Kalpa, Siksha, Brahmana, Vyakarana.
c. Kalpa, Siksha, Nirukta, Aranyaka.
Chandas. Jotisha
d. kalpa, Upanished., Nirukta,
Vyakarana, Chandas, Joyotish
74. The early Tamil poet who makes a
reference to the Nandas and Mauryas in
his work is
a. Sattanar
b. Ilango Adigal
c. Kapilar
d. Mamulanar
75. The term Nadukal mentioned in the
Sangam literature
a. is a reference to a Velir chief
b. means memorial stone
c. was a tax on nadus
d. was an item of export in Indo-Roman trade

76. What is the correct chronological order in
which Buddhist Councils were held at the
following four places?
1. Vaisali
2. Kundalavana
3. Rajagriha
4. Pataliputra
a. 1, 2, 3, 4
b. 4, 3, 2, 1
c. 2, 1, 3, 4
d. 2, 1, 4, 3
77. Mahakachchayana, traditionally the
founder of the Theravada sect, Hailed from
a. Simhala
b. Avanti
c. Gandhara
d. Magadha
78. According to the Mahasanghikas, a being
is composed of
a. Five dharmas
b. Seven dharmas
c. Nine dharmas
d. Eighteen dharmas
79. Which one of the following was a
Buddhist sect which held that constituents
of phenomena were not wholly
momentary, but existed forever in a latent
form?
a. Sautrantika
b. Sthaviravadin
c. Sarvastivadin
d. Sammitiya
80. Which one of the following worshipped
Chakresvari among other deities?
a. Bhagavats
b. Saivas
c. Jainas
d. Buddhists
81. Which of the following are true of
Jainism?
1. It has affinity with the Vedanta system
of philosophy
2. It has affinity with the Sankhya system
of philosophy
3. It completely rejected the concept of
the soul
4. According to it the world consists of
two eternal categories, Viz, conscious
(jiva) and unconscious (ajiva)
a. 1 and 3
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b. 2 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 2 and4
82. Which of the following were important
characteristics of early Bhagavatism?
1. Devotion
2. Action
3. Knowledge
4. Social rigidity
5. Self-sacrifice (Tyaga)
a. 1 and 3
b. 1, 2, 3, and 5
c. 1, 2, 4 and 5
d. 2, 3 and 5
83. The historical site wherein and early
inscription referring to the five heroes of
the Vrishnis is found is.
a. Ghoshundi
b. Besngar
c. Dwarka
d. Mathura
84. Ambika is mentioned as the sister of Rudra
in
a. Vajasaneyi Samhita
b. Satapatha Brahmana
c. Taithriya Aranyaka
d. Siva Purana
85. Salaka-purusha is a concept associated
with the
a. Pasupatas
b. Jainas
c. Bauddhas
d. Bhagavatas
86. During the reign of Bindusara there was
unrest at.
a. Ujjyini
b. Pushkalavati
c. Takshasila
d. Rajagriha
87. Chandragupta figures prominently in a
work of
a. Bhasa
b. Visakhadatta
c. Asvaghosa
d. Bhavabhuti
88. The Kharoshthi script was derived from.
a. Pictographs
b. Cuniform script
c. Aramaic
d. Brahmi
89. Which of the following were in the vijita
of Asoka?
1. Yona
2. Satiyaputa
3. Gandhara
4. Bhoja
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1, 2 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 2, 3 and 4
90. During the Mauryan period
Lakshnadhyaksha was
a. An office possessing knowledge of the
characteristics of animals
b. A professional astrologer
c. An official in charge of road marks
d. An official in charge of mint



91. The term Chitrapata used in some
historical sources denotes
a. Painted pots
b. Textiles from kamarupa
c. Canvas for paintings wall paintings
d. Wall paintings
92. Official stamping of weights and measures
and their periodical inspection are
prescribed by
a. Manu’
b. Narada
c. Brihaspati
d. Parasara
93. That ginger and cinnamon were produced
in large quantities in the Pandya country is
mentioned by
a. Megasthenese
b. Ptolemy
c. Ibn Said
d. Marco Polo
94. Which one of the following denoted a
series of coins?
a. Gajasataka
b. Gadhiya
c. Hiranyadama
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d. Katisama
95. Which of the following were parts of the
Chera kingdom?
1. Korkkai
2. Musiri
3. Puhar
4. Saliyur
5. Tondi
a. 1, 2 and 4
b. 2 and 5
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 3, 4 and 5
96. Pratishthana an important trading centre
was on the river
a. Cauvery
b. Krishna
c. Godavari
d. Narmada
97. The term Chora rajju used in some sources
means
a. A unit of land measurement
b. A class of police officials
c. A kind of tax
d. Rope for thieves
98. During the period of the Cholas and their
successors in south India the association of
peasants was known as
a. Alumganam
b. Nanadesi
c. Cittirameli
d. Ainnurruvar
99. Which one of the following pairs is not
correctly matched?
a. Kshauma: Textile
b. Adhaka: Coin denomination
c. Adhaka: Measure of rainfall
d. Drona: Measure of rainfall
100. Which of the following terms were used to
refer to rural land holders in holders in
eastern India during the Gupta period?
1. Agraharin
2. Kutumbin
3. mahattara
4. Bhogika
a. 1 and 2
b. 3 and 4
c. 1 and 4
d. 2 and 3
101. Which of the following were antya-jatis
according to some Brahmanical texts?
1. Venas
2. Medas
3. Lokayatikas
4. Nastikas
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 3 and 4
102. The Valangai (right hand) and Idangai (left
hand) divisions of south Indian society is
first noticed in the
a. Sangam period
b. Pallava period
c. Chola period
d. Nayaka period
103. “No one is allowed to marry outside his
own caste, or to exchange one profession
of trade for another or to follow more than
one business.” This observation was made
by
a. Megasthenes
b. Fa-Hien
c. Hiuen Tsang
d. Al-Biruni
104. The expression anyavrata (following other
practices) is used in the Rigveda with
reference to the
a. Dasa
b. Dasyus
c. Mlecchas
d. Yadus
105. “Service was his portion in life” This was
applicable to
a. Buddhist Bhikshu
b. Vaisya Verma
c. Sudra Verna
d. Chandala



106. Which one of the following pairs does not
match?
a. Rajasekhara: Kavyamimamsa
b. Uddyotana: Kuvalayamalakaha
c. Ballalasena: Dayabhaga
d. Lakshmidhara: Krityakalpataru
11 of 11
107. Malatimadyava of Bhavabhuti is an
important sources for the study of the.
a. Digmbarar jainas
b. Kapalikas
c. Buddhist Tantriks
d. Bhagavatas
108. the Gujara king and other are said to have
worked as doorkeepers in the
Hiranyagarbha sacrifice-per- formed by
a. Dharmapala
b. Devapala
c. Dantidurga
d. Amoghavarsha
109. Didda the queen of Kashmirruled in the
a. Seventh century
b. Eight century
c. Ninth century
d. Tenth century
110. The celebrated author Kshemendra lived in
a. Bengal
b. Kashmir
c. Maharashtra
d. Gujarat
111. Kosalai nadu conquered by Rajendra
Chola was located on the banks of the
a. Godavari
b. Sarayu
c. Mahanadi
d. Tapti
112. In early medieval south Indian polity the
world Udan kuttam meant
a. A group of small villages in the Chola
kingdom
b. A body of officers under the Cholas
c. A tax levied in the Hoysala kingdom
d. The navy maintained by the Cholas
113. Which of the following were centers of
Chahamana rule
1. Lata
2. Sakambari
3. naddula
4. Dhavagarta
Choose the correct answer from the codes
given below
a. 1, 3 and 4
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 2, 3 and 4
114. Dhavanyaloka is
a. An epic poem
b. A work on poetics
c. A play
d. A work on Buddhist epistemology
115. The Pala king Devapala claims to have
defeated a Dravida king who is usually
identified with
a. Dantidurga
b. Amoghavarsha
c. Dhruva
d. Krishna II
116. Mahakshpatalika was on official in charge
of
a. Chariots
b. Navi
c. Accounts
d. infantry
117. The chandelle dynasty was founded by
a. Vakpati
b. Nannuka
c. Jayasakti
d. Harsha
118. Who was the ruler who was elected to the
throne according to the Rajatarangini?
a. Gopala
b. Yasaskara
c. Nandivarman
d. Karikalan
119. According to Brihaspati the grades of
artisans were
a. Two
b. Four
c. Six
d. eight
120. Which one of the following statements
regarding the stupa is incorrect?
a. It has an umbrella at the top
b. It has a sanctum sanctorum
c. It has a circumambulatory path
(pradakshinapatha)
d. It has a fence 


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