Category Archives: Social Study

civil engg mcq test

Posted by trn

Solved multiple choice question of Civil Engineering
Civil Engineering Quiz
Questions and answers related to the Civil Engineering

1. Which one of the following tests is performed in the laboratory to determine the extent of weathering of aggregates for road works?

(a) Soundness test

(b) Crushing test

(d) Abrasion test

Ans. (a)

2. Which one of the following geometric features requires the magnitudes of weaving angle and weaving distance for its design?

(a) Rotary design

(b) Right-angle intersection

(d) Grade-separated junction

Ans. (a)

3. Which one of the following methods is used in the design of rigid pavements?

(a) CBR method

(b) Group index method

(d) McLeod’s method

Ans. (c)

4. In which one of the following yards, are reception, sorting and dispatch of railway wagons done?

(a) Loco yard

(b) Marashalling yard

(d) Passenger yard

Ans. (b)

5. Which one of the following is not a desirable property of the subgrade soil as a highway meterial?

(a) Stability

(b) Ease of compaction

(d) Bitumen adhesion

Ans. (d)

6. Consider the following statements:

In surverying operations, the word ‘reciprocal’ can be associated with

1. ranging

2. levelling

3. contouring

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (b)

7. How many- sidereal days are there in a solar year?

(a) 365.2840

(b) 366.2422

(d) 365.0000

Ans. (b)

8. Consider the following statements

A sidereal year can be defined as the time interval:

1. between two successive transits .of the sun through the meridian of any of the fixed stars

2. between two successive passages of the sun through perigee

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 3 only

(b) 1and 2

(d) 1 only

Ans. (b)

9. Which one of the following methods of computing area assumes that the short, lengths of the boundary between the ordinates

are parabolic ares?

(a) Average ordinate rule

(b) Middle ordinate rule

(d) Trapezoidal rule

Ans. (c)

10. Which one the following errors is more severe in plane-table surveying?

(a) Defective sighting

(b) Defective orientation

(d) Non-horizontality of board when points sighted are at large differences of their elevation .

Ans. (b)

11. Which one of the following sets of factors is related to design of thickness rigid pavement by Westergaard method?

(a) CBR value and stiffness index of soil

(b) Deflection factor and traffic index

(d) Radius of relative stiffness and modulus of subgrade reaction

Ans. (d)

12. Consider the following in relation to group index of soil:

1. Liquid limit

2. Sandy loam

3. Plasticity index

4. Per cent passing 75 microns sieve

Which of the above is/are used for estimating the group index?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1and 2

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Ans. (d)

13. Which set of traffic functional design as well as for ‘highway capacity’ design?

(a) Origin and destination studies

(b) Parking and accident studies

(d) Axle load studies

Ans. (a)

14. Which one of the following traffic survey schemes is most relevant when deciding on locating major ‘routes’ in a city?

(a) Traffic volume survey

(b) Origin and destination survey

(d) Traffic capacity survey

Ans. (b)

15. Which one of the following equipments is useful in determining spot speed in traffic engineering?

(a) Endoscope

(b) Periscope

(d) Tachometer

Ans. (c)

16. Hot bitumen is sprayed over freshly constructed bituminous surface followed by spreading of 6.3 mm coarse aggregates

and rolled. Which one of the following is indicated by this type of construction?

(a) Surface dressing

(b) Gravel-bitumen mix

(d) Seal coat

Ans. (a)

17. Radius of relative stiffness of cement concrete pavement does not depend upon which one of the following?

(a) Modulus of subgrade reaction

(b) Wheel load

(d) Poisson’s ratio of concrete

Ans. (b)

18. For conditions obtaining in India, at which location in a cement concrete payement will the combined stresses due to traffic

wheel studies is needed for well as for ‘highway load and temperature have to be critically checked during design?

(a) Corner

(b) Corner and interior

(d) Corner, edge and interior

Ans. (d)

19. Consider the following factors:

1. The change in the shape and size of the channel cross-section

2. The change in the slope of the channel

3. The presence of obstruction

4. The change in the frictional forces at the boundaries

Which of the above factors would cause a gradually varied flow?

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 3 and 4 only

Ans. (a)

20. Under which one of the following categories is the river Ganga classified in the reach through UP and Bihar?

(a) Straight river

(b) Meandering river

(d) Deltaic river

Ans. (b)

21. Which of the following categories best describes the Hirakud reservoir?

(a) Reservoir for irrigation and power

(b) Reservoir for flood control, power and irrigation

(d) Reservoir for recreation and fishery

Ans. (b)

22.. During a particular stage of the growth of a crop, consumptive use of water is 2.8 mm/day. If the amount of water available

in the soil is 25% of 80 mm depth of water what is the frequency of irrigation?

(a) 9 days

(b) 13 days

(d) 25 days

Ans. (c)

23.. Consider the following statements:

Irrigation water has to be supplied to the crops when the moisture level falls

1. below field capacity

2. to wilting point

3. below wilting point

Which of the above statement is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3

Ans. (a)

24.. A groundwater basin consists of 10 km2 area of plains. The maximum groundwater table fluctuation has been observed

to be 1.5 m. Consider specific yield of the basin as 10%. What is the available groundwater storage in million cubic metres?

(a) 1.0

(b) 1.5

(d) 2.0

Ans. (b)

25. Consider the following chemical emulsions:

1. Methyl alcohol

2. Cetyl alcohol

3. Stearyl alcohol

4. Kerosene

Which of the above chemical emulsions is/are used to minimize the loss of water through the process of evaporation?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 4

(d) 2 and 3

Ans. (d)

26. A catchment area of 60 ha has a runoff coefficient of 0.40. If a storm of intensity 3cm h and duration longer than the time

of concentration occurs in the catchment, then what is the peak discharge?

(a) 2.0 m3/s

(b) 3.5 m3/s

(d) 2.5 m3/s

Ans. (a)

27. Which combination of surface water quality parameters will indicate sweep coagulation as the preferred mechanism of coagulation?.

(a) High turbidity — low alkalinity

(b) High turbidity — high alkalinity

(d) Low turbidity — low alkalinity

Ans. (b)

28. In a canal irrigation project, 76% of the culturable command area (CCA) remained without water during Kharif season; and

58% of CCA remained without water during Rabi season in a particular year. Rest of the areas got irrigated in each crop

respectively. What is the intensity of irrigation for the project in that year?

(a) 134%

(b) 76%

(d) 58%

Ans. (b)

29. What is the critical combination of vertical and horizontal earthquake accelerations to be considered for checking the stability

of a gravity dam in reservoir full condition?

(a) Vertically upward and horizontally downstream

(b) Vertically upward and horizontally upstream

(d) Vertically downward and horizontally downstream

Ans. (d)

30. What is the height of wave which is likely to be generated by a wind of 80 km/hr in a reservoir having a fetch of 50 km:

(a) 0.5m

(b) 1.0 m

(d) 3.0 m

Ans. (c)

31. Consider the following statements:

1. Giving equal weightings to horizontal and vertical creeps for design of weir foundations is one of the drawbacks of Kennedy’s theory.

2. Khosla’s theory of design of foundations for weirs is based on potential theory.

3. Piping problem can be reduced by increasing the length of floor.

4. In Lane’s weighted creep theory, horizontal creep is given less weightage compared to vertical creep.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 3 and 4 only

Ans. (b)

32. The power transmitted through a pipeline is maximum when the head lost due to friction in the pipe is equal to:

(a) the total supply head

(b) half of the total supply head

(d) one-fourth of the total supply head

Ans. (c)

33. Consider the following with respect to the application of the Navier-Stokes equations:

1. Laminar flown in circular pipes

2. Laminar flow between concentric rotating cylinders

3. Laminar unidirectional flow between stationary parallel plates

4. Laminary unit directional flow between parallel plates having relative motion

Which of the above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only.

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (c)

34. In a siphon system employed for carrying water from a reservoir A at a higher elevation to another reservoir B at lower elevation, both

being separated by a higher hill, what will be the pressure at the ‘Summit’ (S)?

(a) Equal to the pressure at the water surface of reservoir A

(b) Higher than the pressure at the water surface of reservoir A

(d) Less than the pressure at both A and B above

Ans. (d)

35. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

A. Rehbock formula 1. Sutro weir

B. Francis formula 2. Rectangular suppressed weir

C. A special trapezoidal weir 3. Rectangular side- contracted weir

D. Linear proportional weir 4. Cippolletti weir

Code:

A B C D

(a) 1 3 4 2

(b) 2 4 3 1

(d) 2 3 4 1

Ans. (d)

36. Consider the following statements related to undersluices provided in diversion weirs on permeable foundations:

I. They are fully gate-controlled and have crest at the same level as the weir crest when no silt excluders are provided.

2. They scour the silt deposited on the river bed in the pockets upstream of the canal head regulator.

3. It is not necessary to provide end pile line on the downstream end of the undersluice floor.

4. The discharge capacity of the undersluice is 10-15% of the maximum flood or two times the maximum discharge of the offtaking canal or

maximum winter discharge, whichever is the highest.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 3 and 4 only

Ans. (b)

37. What is the theoretical oxygen demand of 300 mg/L glucose solution?

(a) 300 mg/L

(b) 320 mg/L

(d) 400 mg/L

Ans. (b)

38. Consider the following:

1. Force on pipe bends and transitions

2. Jet propulsion

3. Flow velocities in open channel

4. Vortex flow

Which of the above admit employing the moment of momentum equation?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (d)

39. Consider the following statements:

1. Shear stress is maximum at the centre line.

2. Maximum velocity is 3\2 times the average velocity

3. Discharge varies inversely with the coefficient of viscosity.

4. Slope of hydraulic gradient line increases linearly with the velocity of flow.

Which of the above statements are correct in connection with a steady laminar flow through a circular pipe?

(a) 1, 3 and 4

(b) 3 and 4 only

(d) 2 and 4

Ans. (b)

40. Consider the following statements:

Cavitation generally results from a combination of several influences

1. by reduction of pressure intensity below a limiting value

2. by increase in either elevation or the velocity of flow

3. by reduction of pressure load in the system

4. by decrease in the velocity of flow

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 3 and 4

Ans. (b)

41. What is Hydrological Cycle?

(a) Processes involved in the transfer of moisture from sea to land

(b) Processes involved in the transfer of moisture from sea back again

(d) Processes involved in the transfer of moisture from sea to land and back to sea again

Ans. (d)

42. Consider the following with respect to a double-mass curve:

I. Plot of accumulated rainfall with respect to two chronological orders

2. Plot for estimating multiple missing rainfall data

3. Plot for checking the consistency of the rainfall data

4. Plot of accumulated annual rainfall of a station vs. accumulated rainfall of a group of stations

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 4

Ans. (c)

43. Generally to estimate PMP, P_m = 42. 16D0.475 is used (P_m is maximum depth of precipitation, D = duration). What are the units of P_mand D in the equation?

(a) mm, sec

(b) cm, sec

(ë) mm, hr

(d) cm, hr

Ans. (d)

44. A triangular direct runoff hydrograph due to a storm has a time base of 60 hr and a peak flow of 30m3/s occurring at 20 hr

from the start. If the catchment area is 300 km2, what is the rainfall excess in the storm?

(a) 50 mm

(b) 20 mm

(d) 8.3 mm

Ans. (c)

45. A 3 hr unit hydrograph U₁ of a catchment of area 235 km2 is in the form of a triangle with peak discharge 30 m3/s. Another

3 hr unit hydrograph U₂ is also triangular in shape and has the same base width as U₁, but has a peak flow of 90 m3/s. What

is the catchment area of U₂?

(a) 117.5 km2

(b) 235 km2

(d) 705 km2

Ans. (d)

46. While selecting a centrifugal pump for your requirement of head and discharge on the basis of its performance characteristics,

which one of the following criteria is to be adopted?

(a) Head, discharge and efficiency

(b) Head and discharge only

(d) Head only

Ans. (a)

47. Consider the following statements:

The function of the impeller in a centrifugal pump is to:

1. Convert the pressure energy into hydraulic energy

2. Convert the hydraulic energy into mechanical energy

3. Convert the mechanical energy into hydraulic energy

4. transform most of the kinetic energies to pressure energy

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (b)

48. A centrifugal pump gives maximum efficiency when its impeller blades are

(a) bent forward

(b) bent backward

(d) wave-shaped

Ans. (b)

49. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the the code given below the

Lists-I List-II

A. Spiral casing 1. To allow flow of water through it to produce a torque

for the rotation of the runner

B. Stay ring 2. To direct the water on the runner at an

appropriate angle

C. Guide vane 3. To distribute the flow over the periphery of the runner

D. Runner 4. To act as column helping to support the electrical

generator above the turbine

Code:

A B C D

(a) 3 2 4 1

(b) 1 2 4 3

(d) 1 4 2 3

Ans. (c)

50. By which one of the following, a small quantity of water may be lifted to a great height?

(a) Hydraulic ram

(b) Hydraulic crane

(d) Hydraulic coupling

Ans. (a)

Posted in BE, Civil engineering, General Studies, Practice paper, Question and Answers, Quiz, sample paper, Social Study, Study Material

1 Comment

1. ______is the capital of Mizoram
(A) Dispur
(B) Aizwal
(C) Kohima
(D) Itanagar
2. The only Indian State that shares its border with Sikkim is_______
(A) Assam
(B)Meghalaya
(C) West Bengal
(D) Arunachal pradesh
3. _______is the capital of Zimbabwe.
(A) Lusaka
(B) Harare
(C) kampala
(D) Brazzaville
4. The Speaker of Lok Sabha is ______
(A) elected by its members
(B) nominated by the president of india
(C) nominated by the leader of the majority party/alliance
(D) the Vice President of India
5. The Mavalankar Hall in Delhi is named after the ______Speaker of Lok Sabha.
(A) Second
(B) First
(C) Third
(D) Fourth
6. Mr. P.A Sangma was the speaker of lok sabha during _____
(A) 1989-91
(B) 1991-96
(C) 1996-98
(D) 1998-2002
7. The Nobel Peace prize was won by ___in 2007.
(A) P.Sainath
(B) Kofi Annan
(C) Muhammed Yunus
(D) Albert AI Gore and Rjendra K.pichauri
8. Saiman Rushdie received_____in 2008.
(A) Man Booker Prize
(B) Nobel Pize for Literature
(C) The Booker of Man Booker Prize
(D) Gyanpeeth Award
9. In july 2008; the Group of Eight (GB) sumit was held in____
(A) Japan
(B) Germany
(C) Russia
(D) The USA
10. International Monetary Fund (IMF) is______
(A) A specialised Agency of the United Nations
(B) A branch of the World Bank
(C) An economic organisation of the European Union
(D) an Independent international organisation
11. The headquarters of the World Trade Organisation (WTO) is located in___
(A) New York
(B) Rome
(C) Geneva
(D) Manila
12. Mr.Hugo Chavez is the president of_____
(A) Japan
(B) Germany
(C) Russia
(D) The USA
13. Mr.Pushpa Kamal Dahal `prachand` is the Prime Minister of____
(A) People of Republic of Nepal
(B) Democratic Republic of Nepal
(C) Republic of Nepal
(D) Federal Democratic Republic of Nepal
14. The Legislative Branch of Bangladesh is called_____
(A) National Council
(B) Jatiya Sangsad
(C) National Assembly
(D) Majlis-e-Shoora
15. The Indian Parliament enacted the Right to information Act in
(A) 2003
(B) 2004
(C) 2006
(D) 2005
16. India was put under the direct rule of Queen Victoria for the first time in_____
(A) 1757
(B) 1858
(C) 1877
(D) 1876
17. The ____ holds the post of the Chairman of the Planning Commission in India.
(A) Minister of Planning
(B) Finance Minister
(C) Minister of Human Resource Development
(D) Prime Minister
18. The Legislative branch of the USA has a bicameral system; one is called the senate and the other; the ____
(A) Congress
(B) House of Representative
(C) House of Commons
(D) National Assembly
19. The number of nominated members in Rajya Sabha is
(A) 10
(B) 2
(C) 12
(D) 7
20. Bobby Jindal is the first-ever Indian American who was elected the Governor of_____
(A) Arizona
(B) Lousiana
(C) Oklahoma
(D) Nebraska
21. In the “Warrant of precedence“ the Speaker of Lok Sabha is placed_____
(A) immediately before the Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(B) immediately before the former President of India
(C) with the Chief Justice of India
(D) after the Union Cabinet Ministers
22. The target for the growth performance in the Tenth Five Year Plan was eight per cent but the actual growth was___per cent.
(A) 7
(B) 7.8
(C) 7.2
(D) 6.7
23. In 2008 the Chief Guest in the Republic Day parade in New Delhi was____
(A) Nicholas Sarkozy; President of France
(B) Gordon Brown; Prime Minister of the UK
(C) Hu Jintoo; President of the Republic of China
(D) Hamid Karzal; President of Afghanistan
24. The first coalition government of the Republic of India was formed in
(A) 1977
(B) 1989
(C) 1990
(D) 2004
25. The major languages of Malaysia are Bahasa Malay; English; Chinese and ______
(A) Tamil
(B) Telugu
(C) Thai
(D) Punjabi
26. India became a republic in_____
(A) 1947
(B) 1948
(C) 1949
(D) 1950
27. Dadra and Nagar Haveli are a______
(A) Separate union territory
(B) part of Goa
(C) part of Daman and Diu
(D) part of Gujrat
28. The Adjournment Motion in Indian Parliaent is the procedure for the adjournment of the___
(A) House
(B) Normal Business of the House
(C) Question Hour
(D) Zero Hour
29. The first huse of legislation in India was called_____
(A) Imperial Legislative Congress
(B) Central Legislative Congress
(C) Central Legislative Council
(D) Constituent Assembly
30. The first modern Olympic games were held in 1896 in_____
(A) Paris
(B) London
(C) St.Louis
(D) Athens
31. _____won the largest number of gold medals in one Olympic Games.
(A) Mark Spitz
(B) Michael Phelps
(C) Carl Lewis
(D) Usain Bolt
32. The only individual gold medal was won for India by Abhinav Bindra in the ____olymics
(A) 28th
(B) 24th
(C) 27th
(D) 29th
33. The first Asian country to host the prestigious Olympic Games was____
(A) China
(B) Japan
(C) S.Korea
(D) Singapore
34. India won the 2007 IIC World Twenty 20 Championship by defeating___in the final
(A) Australia
(B) Srilanka
(C) Pakistan
(D) South Africa
35. Out of the previously known planets;____has been demoted as a`dwarf planet`.
(A) Uranus
(B) Pluto
(C) Neptune
(D) Jupiter
36. ____is the main constituent of both brass and bronze.
(A) Nickel
(B) Iron
(C) Zinc
(D) Copper
37. The BPO provides______
(A) 24×7 call centre services
(B) non core business services through an outside provider
(C) uninterrupted telephone services
(D) communication to customers at a personal level
38. Nanctechnology is that branch of technology which deals with____
(A) speculative science
(B) the structure and behaviour of materials
(C) biotechnology
(D) manipulation of individual atoms and molecules
39. The virtual reality technology gives us the experience of real life situation in___
(A) a real world
(B) virtual cyberspace
(C) films
(D) multiedia projections
40. Mozquitoes that cause dengue hemorrhagic fever bite people primarily____
(A) during the day time
(B) at night
(C) early in the morning
(D) In the evening
41. The Chikungunya fever is caused by____
(A) protozoan
(B) bacteria
(C) virus
(D) fungi
42. jelly fish is called so because it____
(A) is shaped like jelly
(B) is made up of jelly like substance
(C) can control and expand its body
(D) is also called`sea jelly`
43. APC is a____
(A) palmtop computer
(B) laptop computer
(C) desktop computer
(D) mobile computer
44. Among the genetically modified (GM) food; india produces only______
(A) papaya
(B) rice
(C) mangoes
(D) soyabeans
45. The two astronauts of Indian origin who participatd in the space flights by NASA are Kalpana Chawla and____
(A) R.K Murali
(B) Sunita Williams
(C) Supriya Chakrabarti
(D) G.Madhav Nair
46. The abbreviation BPL stands for___
(A) Business Processing Laws
(B) Below poverty line
(C) Blood pressure level
(D) Bharat petroleum limited
47. RAM stands for____
(A) Rapid Army Manoeuvre
(B) Random Amplified Accessories
(C) Remote Area`s modernisation
(D) Random Access Memory
48. PNR stands for_____
(A) Passenger name recorder
(B) Permanent number record
(C) Public network review
(D) Press network research
49. SMS stands for____
(A) Subscriber`s message server
(B) Satellite message service
(C) Short messaging service
(D) Simple message server
50. LNG stands for______
(A) Light Natural Gas
(B) Liquefied Natural Gas
(C) Liquid Natural Gas
(D) Low-Intensity natural Gas
51. The normal life of Lok Sabhe is?
a. 6 years
b. 5 years
c. 4 years
d. 7 years
52. The only union territory which has a High Court of its won is?
a. Chandigarh
b. Delhi
c. Andaman & Nicobar islans
d. None of these
53. The chakra of Indian flag has how many spokes?
a. 24
b. 26
c. 28
d. 32
54. Reserve Bank of India issues all currency except
a. one rupee notes
b. one rupee notes
c. one thousand rupee notes
d. ten rupee notes
55. Indian planning commission was set up in
a. 1949
b. 1945
c. 1950
d. 1951
56. Which is the tallest living animal?
a. Elephant
b. Giraffe
c. OStrich
d. None of these
57. Human Rights Day is celebrated on?
a. December 10
b. January 10
c. Novenber 21
d. None of these
58. Eden Gardens satdium is famous for?
a. Hockey
b. Cricket
c. Golf
d. Football
59. India has how many states?
a. 25
b. 26
c. 27
d.28
60. what is the capital of Iraq?
a. Bagdad
b. Abu Dhabi
c. Tehran
d. Arabia

Posted in General Awareness Question Paper, GENERAL KNOWLEDGE, General Studies, India Current Affairs Quiz, Quiz, Social Study, Study Material

2 Comments

	Manisha on General knowledge for Exa…
	Manisha on civil engg mcq test
	Manisha on Economic General Awareness…
	Manisha on General Awareness: Internation…
	Manisha on Overall Cognizance: Humans Org…

Recent Posts

Recent Comments

Archives

Categories

Meta

www.rpscportal.com

A Another blog of RPSCPORTAL

Category Archives: Social Study

civil engg mcq test

General knowledge for Exams

Syllabus Syllabus for Sr. Teacher (Grade-II) 2011 : Social Study

Recent Posts

Recent Comments

Archives

Categories

Meta